Category: Cisco CCNP

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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?

A. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make

B. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API

C. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API

D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

A threat actor attacked an organization\’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was disconnected, and the administrator\’s account was disabled.

Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server

B. accessing the server with financial data

C. accessing multiple servers

D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst needs to investigate a security incident involving several suspicious connections with a possible attacker. Which tool should the analyst use to identify the source IP of the offender?

A. packet sniffer

B. malware analysis

C. SIEM

D. firewall manager

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized individual to enter a secured premises. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access

B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired

C. Change access controls to high-risk assets in the enterprise

D. Identify the movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

QUESTION 3:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4:

A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on the IP subnet 103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?

A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?

A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7:

An analyst is alerted to a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

DRAG-DROP

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?

A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12:

An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?

A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?

A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which configuration modifies Local Packet Transport Services hardware policies?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/addr_serv/command/reference/b_ipaddr_cr41crs/b_ipaddr_cr41crs_chapter_0111.html#wp1754734006

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack.
B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective.
C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation.
D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
Which statement about segment routing prefix segments is true?
A. It is the longest path to a node.
B. It is linked to an adjacency SID that is globally unique within the router.
C. It is linked to a prefix SID that is globally unique within the segment routing domain.
D. It requires using EIGRP to operate.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/segment-routing/configuration/guide/b-segrouting-cg-asr9k/b-seg-routing-cg-asr9k_chapter_010.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
Correct Answer: B
The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
A. default-metric
B. duplex
C. network statement
D. MTU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF
B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers.
C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR
D. It requires routing protocol extensions
E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference.
B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference.
C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300.
D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and
other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an
engineer apply?
A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set local-preference 400
set med 500
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
set local-preference 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and
21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
Correct Answer: C
IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

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