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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Exam Code: 210-255
Total Questions: 80 Q&As

Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which option creates a display filter on Wireshark on a host IP address or name?
A. ip.address == <address> or ip.network == <network>
B. [tcp|udp] ip.[src|dst] port <port>
C. ip.addr == <addr> or ip.name == <name>
D. ip.addr == <addr> or ip.host == <host>
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?
A. past health condition
B. geographic location
C. full name
D. recent payment amount
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?
A. direct
B. corroborative
C. indirect
D. circumstantial
E. textual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)?
A. Cisco CloudLock
B. Cisco’s Active Threat Analytics (ATA)
C. Cisco Managed Firepower Service
D. Cisco Jasper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)
A. PCAP
B. tracert
C. running processes
D. hard drive configuration
E. applications
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7

Refer to the Exhibit. 210-255 dumps A customer reports that they cannot access your organization’s website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?
A. snooping
B. hacking
C. theft
D. assault
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which Security Operations Center’s goal is to provide incident handling to a country?
A. Coordination Center
B. Internal CSIRT
C. National CSIRT
D. Analysis Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which CVSSv3 metric captures the level of access that is required for a successful attack?
A. attack vector
B. attack complexity
C. privileges required
D. user interaction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 15
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
210-255 dumps Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two HTTP header fields relate to intrusion analysis? (Choose two).
A. user-agent
B. host
C. connection
D. language
E. handshake type
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What information from HTTP logs can be used to find a threat actor?
A. referer
B. IP address
C. user-agent
D. URL
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of a flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.
Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 22
What is accomplished in the identification phase of incident handling?
A. determining the responsible user
B. identifying source and destination IP addresses
C. defining the limits of your authority related to a security event
D. determining that a security event has occurred
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. delivery
B. reconnaissance
C. action on objectives
D. installation
E. exploitation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract the relevant information from the collective data?
A. examination
B. reporting
C. collection
D. investigation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
In Microsoft Windows, as files are deleted the space they were allocated eventually is considered available for use by other files. 210-255 dumps This creates alternating used and unused areas of various sizes. What is this called?
A. network file storing
B. free space fragmentation
C. alternate data streaming
D. defragmentation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is one of the main goals of data normalization?
A. To save duplicate logs for redundancy
B. To purge redundant data while maintaining data integrity
C. To correlate IPS and IDS logs with DNS
D. To correlate IPS/IDS logs with firewall logs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the Internet myplugin.html and exploitable.php. A newly discovered exploit takes advantage of an injection vulnerability in exploitable.php. To exploit the vulnerability, one must send an HTTP POST with specific variables to exploitable.php. You see traffic to your webserver that consists of only HTTP GET requests to myplugin.html. Which category best describes this activity?
A. weaponization
B. exploitation
C. installation
D. reconnaissance
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?
A. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnelpolicy tunnelspecified split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnelpolicy tunnelall split tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C. group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified split tunnelnetwork-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnelnetwork-list splitlist
E. crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What is the default storage location of user-level bookmarks in an IOS clientless SSL VPN?
A. disk0:/webvpn/{context name}/
B. disk1:/webvpn/{context name}/
C. flash:/webvpn/{context name}/
D. nvram:/webvpn/{context name}/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three configurations are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose three.)
A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B. Only crypto map configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but need to be the same type of device.
E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and should be the same type of device.
F. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
G. The IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
Correct Answer: CEG

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

A new NOC engineer, while viewing a real-time log from an SSL VPN tunnel, has a question a line in the log.
The IP address 172.26.26.30 is attached to which interface in the network? 300-209 dumps
A. the Cisco ASA physical interface
B. the physical interface of the end user
C. the Cisco ASA SSL VPN tunnel interface
D. the SSL VPN tunnel interface of the end user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two qualify as Next Generation Encryption integrity algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-512
B. SHA-256
C. SHA-192
D. SHA-380
E. SHA-192
F. SHA-196
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which command specifies the path to the Host Scan package in an ASA AnyConnect VPN?
A. csd hostscan path image
B. csd hostscan image path
C. csd hostscan path
D. hostscan image path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which transform set is contained in the IKEv2 default proposal?
A. aes-cbc-192, sha256, group 14
B. 3des, md5, group 7
C. 3des, sha1, group 1
D. aes-cbc-128, sha, group 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An XYZ Corporation systems engineer, while making a sales call on the ABC Corporation headquarters, tried to access the XYZ sales demonstration folder to transfer a demonstration via FTP from an ABC conference room behind the firewall. The engineer could not reach XYZ through the remote-access VPN tunnel. From home the previous day, however, the engineer did connect to the XYZ sales demonstration folder and transferred the demonstration via IPsec over DSL.
To get the connection to work and transfer the demonstration, what should the engineer do?
A. Change the MTU size on the IPsec client to account for the change from DSL to cable transmission.
B. Enable the local LAN access option on the IPsec client.
C. Enable the IPsec over TCP option on the IPsec client.
D. Enable the clientless SSL VPN option on the PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12



When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 14
E. 19
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while SSL works fine? 300-209 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec.
B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface.
C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy.
D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port.
E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
When you troubleshoot Cisco AnyConnect, which step does Cisco recommend before you open a TAC case?
A. Show applet Lifecycle exceptions.
B. Disable cookies.
C. Enable the WebVPN cache.
D. Collect a DART bundle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

A junior network engineer configured the corporate Cisco ASA appliance to accommodate a new temporary worker. For security reasons, the IT department wants to restrict the internal network access of the new temporary worker to the corporate server, with an IP address of 10.0.4.10. After the junior network engineer finished the configuration, an IT security specialist tested the account of the temporary worker. The tester was able to access the URLs of additional secure servers from the WebVPN user account of the temporary worker.
What did the junior network engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The ACL was configured incorrectly.
B. The ACL was applied incorrectly or was not applied.
C. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker group policy.
D. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker user policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which DAP endpoint attribute checks for the matching MAC address of a client machine?
A. device
B. process
C. antispyware
D. BIA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
In the Cisco ASDM interface, where do you enable the DTLS protocol setting?
A. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; Group Policies andgt; Add or Edit andgt; Add or Edit Internal Group Policy
B. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; AAA Setup andgt; Local Users andgt; Add or Edit
C. Device Management andgt; Users/AAA andgt; User Accounts andgt; Add or Edit andgt; Add or Edit User Account andgt; VPN Policy andgt; SSL VPN Client
D. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; Group Policies andgt; Add or Edit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which command enables IOS SSL VPN Smart Tunnel support for PuTTY?
A. appl ssh putty.exe win
B. appl ssh putty.exe windows
C. appl ssh putty
D. appl ssh putty.exe
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

While troubleshooting a remote-access application, a new NOC engineer received the logging message that is shown in the exhibit. Which configuration is most likely to be mismatched?
A. IKE configuration
B. extended authentication configuration
C. IPsec configuration
D. digital certificate configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You have deployed new Cisco AnyConnect start before logon modules and set the configuration to download modules before logon, but all client connections continue to use the previous version of the module.
Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure start before logon in the client profile.
B. Configure a group policy to prompt the user to download the updated module.
C. Define the modules for download in the client profile.
D. Define the modules for download in the group policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of mismatch is causing the problem with the IPsec VPN tunnel?
A. PSK
B. Phase 1 policy
C. transform set
D. crypto access list
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two are features of GETVPN but not DMVPN and FlexVPN? (Choose two.)
A. one IPsec SA for all encrypted traffic
B. no requirement for an overlay routing protocol
C. design for use over public or private WAN
D. sequence numbers that enable scalable replay checking
E. enabled use of ESP or AH
F. preservation of IP protocol in outer header
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
A spoke has two Internet connections for failover. How can you achieve optimum failover without affecting any other router in the DMVPN cloud? 300-209 dumps
A. Create another DMVPN cloud by configuring another tunnel interface that is sourced from the second ISP link.
B. Use another router at the spoke site, because two ISP connections on the same router for the same hub is not allowed.
C. Configure SLA tracking, and when the primary interface goes down, manually change the tunnel source of the tunnel interface.
D. Create another tunnel interface with same configuration except the tunnel source, and configure the if-state nhrp and backup interface commands on the primary tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

A NOC engineer is in the process of entering information into the Create New VPN Connection Entry fields.
Which statement correctly describes how to do this?
A. In the Connection Entry field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. In the Host field, enter the IP address of the remote client device.
C. In the Authentication tab, click the Group Authentication or Mutual Group Authentication radio button to enable symmetrical pre-shared key authentication.
D. In the Name field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two characteristics of the VPN implementation are evident? (Choose two.)
A. dual DMVPN cloud setup with dual hub
B. DMVPN Phase 3 implementation
C. single DMVPN cloud setup with dual hub
D. DMVPN Phase 1 implementation
E. quad DMVPN cloud with quadra hub
F. DMVPN Phase 2 implementation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 26
Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.)
A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.
B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.
C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive.
D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.
E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 27
An administrator desires that when work laptops are not connected to the corporate network, they should automatically initiate an AnyConnect VPN tunnel back to headquarters. Where does the administrator configure this?
A. Via the svc trusted-network command under the group-policy sub-configuration mode on the ASA
B. Under the andquot;Automatic VPN Policyandquot; section inside the Anyconnect Profile Editor within ASDM
C. Under the TNDPolicy XML section within the Local Preferences file on the client computer
D. Via the svc trusted-network command under the global webvpn sub-configuration mode on the ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 30
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN? 300-209 dumps
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements would lead you to use a mixed Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with physical and virtual machines instead of a fully virtualized deployment? (Choose two.)
A. when migrating from a physical to a virtual deployment
B. when inter virtual machine traffic should be switched with Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. when using MOH audio live-stream devices
D. when you want to use direct-attached Fibre Channel SAN devices
E. when you need remote access to the BIOS setup
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Why should you use the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in addition to your design solution that you did manually?
A. this is not necessary if the DocWiki guidelines for virtualized Cisco Unified Communications are followed
B. to distribute and place the virtual machines automatically in the optimized way
C. to calculate CPU and memory utilization
D. to select the optimized OVA template for the deployment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When designing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how many MOH Unicast streams are supported per server when streaming is colocated?
A. 48
B. 128
C. 250
D. 256
E. 500
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
When designing a virtualized Cisco Unity Connection deployment, which two statements are true? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. configure CPU affinity for Cisco Unity Connection
B. reserve an unused core per Cisco Unity Connection virtual machine
C. reserve an unused core per host server
D. iLBC codec selection reduces the number of ports by 75 percent
E. a Cisco Unity Connection cluster supports up to 40,000 users
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 5
How many coresident applications can be hosted on a Cisco UCS C200 M2 server when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two vDisk options can be selected for the 20,000-user Cisco Unity Connection OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 2 * 146 GB
B. 2 * 200 GB
C. 2 * 256 GB
D. 2 * 300 GB
E. 2 * 450 GB
F. 2 * 500 GB
Correct Answer: D,F

QUESTION 7
How many Cisco Unified Communications Manager users can be processed by a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server compared to a Cisco MCS 7845-I3 server?
A. single
B. double
C. triple
D. quadruple
E. quintuple
F. sextuple
G. octuple
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which application can be colocated on the same server as the virtualized Cisco Unified Communications applications?
A. DHCP server
B. DNS server
C. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
D. VMware vCenter
E. Cisco SocialMiner
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
How many DIMM slots does the Intel Xeon 5600 processor architecture offer per socket?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
E. 18
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How many Cisco Media Communications Servers does a deployment require to reach a return on investment when deploying Cisco B-Series servers instead of Cisco Media Communications Servers in a newly installed data center?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two make up the default username and password to access the Cisco Integrated Management Controller for the first time? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. admin
B. administrator
C. root
D. password
E. none (empty)
F. Cisco123
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 12
What is the disk efficiency factor when using RAID 10?
A. 1/2
B. 1/n
C. 1/(n/2)
D. 1-1/n
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a general server status indicator?
A. Good
B. Fault
C. Severed Fault
D. Test in Progress
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
Correct Answer: B,D

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QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause? 300-115 dumps
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface DescriptionD. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
What happens if you apply this command andquot;vlan dot1q tag nativeandquot;?
A. packet will be dropped
B. packet go to defautl vlan
C. packet go to native vlan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distributionand core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. 300-115 dumps The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on
backup device has also failed. Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.



What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Afterport security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisablerecovery cause security-violation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which three functions does Dynamic ARP Inspection perform with invalid IP-to MAC address bindings? 300-115 dumps (Choose there.)
A. accepts
B. deletes
C. discards
D. bypasses
E. intercepts
F. logs
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 19

Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

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QUESTION 1
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? 200-310 dumps (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. 200-310 dumps To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-101
Total Questions: 828 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the max-age time in IS-IS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The IS-IS max-age time is 20 minutes by default.
B. The IS-IS max-age time is 60 minutes by default.
C. The IS-IS max-age time increments from zero to max-age.
D. The IS-IS max-age time decrements from max-age to zero.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID.
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? 400-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast packets on a source tree.
B. It requires an RP.
C. It forwards multicast packets on a shared distribution tree.
D. It floods multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
E. It floods multicast packets throughout the network.
F. It forwards multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Which BGP feature allows R1 to instruct R2 which prefixes it is allowed to advertise to R1?
A. route refresh
B. Prefix-Based Outbound Route Filtering
C. distribute lists
D. prefix lists
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three capabilities are provided by MLD snooping? (Choose three.)
A. dynamic port learning
B. IPv6 multicast router discovery
C. user-configured ports age out automatically
D. a 5-minute aging timer
E. flooding control packets to the egress VLAN
F. a 60-second aging timer
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture?
A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. It can store only packet data.
C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress.
D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IGPs are true? 400-101 dumps (Choose Two)
A. RIPv2 and IS-IS calculate the metric of a link based on the bandwidth of a link.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols.
C. OSPF and EIGRP have high resource usage.D. RiPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM.
E. RIPv2 and OSPF are distance vector protocols.
F. IS-IS and EIGRP are link-state protocols.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?
A. stub
B. named mode
C. classic mode
D. passive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the BGP community attribute are true? (Choose two.)
A. Routers send the community attribute to all BGP neighbors automatically.
B. A router can change a received community attribute before advertising it to peers.
C. It is a well-known, discretionary BGP attribute.
D. It is an optional transitive BGP attribute.
E. A prefix can support only one community attribute.
Correct Answer: BD

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