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QUESTION 1
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. 200-125 pdf What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. 200-125 dumps What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
A. More collision domains will be created.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
Answer: D
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: ACF

QUESTION 7
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why? 200-125 pdf
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: BDE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Cisco Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Correct Answer: C
700-070
QUESTION 3           700-070
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT executives? (Choose two)
A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture. In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers whilethe collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
B. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer.
D. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
D. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which two options are characteristics of Cisco collaboration cloud-based solutions? (Choose two.) 700-070
A. private cloud collaboration solution
B. data center interconnected solution
C. hosted collaboration solution partner cloud
D. security intelligence operations
E. integrated computed stacks
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a reason why it is important to identify and collect business KPIs when designing the Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. to be able to identify the weakest building blocks of the business model and propose Cisco Collaboration Architecture for that building block
B. to be able to translate features and functionalities of Cisco Collaboration Architecture into benefits for measured KPIs
C. to be able to understand the customer’s processes, partners, business model, strategy, and vision
D. to be able to propose how the business model can be improved by using Cisco Collaboration Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
How can the Cisco collaboration services layer of Cisco Collaboration Architecture help managers to measure KPIs?
A. The Cisco collaboration services layer is a standalone element of Cisco Collaboration Architecture and delivers services that directly improve business KPIs
B. Cisco collaboration services and infrastructure layers compose Cisco Collaboration Architecture that improves technical KPIs.
C. The Cisco collaboration services layer delivers additional performance information to demonstrate increased business performance.
D. Conferencing, IP communications, telepresence, and other Cisco collaboration services deliver additional information to show the increased business performance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs? 700-070
A. mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
B. mapping collaboration maps with the customer’s existing solutions
C. mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
D. mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
Correct Answer: A

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Question No : 1
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Answer: A,D

Question No : 2
Which term represents the practice of giving employees only those permissions necessary to perform their specific role within an organization?
A. integrity validation
B. due diligence
C. need to know
D. least privilege
Answer: D

Question No : 3
Which concern is important when monitoring NTP servers for abnormal levels of traffic?
A. Being the cause of a distributed reflection denial of service attack.
B. Users changing the time settings on their systems.
C. A critical server may not have the correct time synchronized.
D. Watching for rogue devices that have been added to the network.
Answer: C
210-250
Question No : 4                         210-250
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which situation indicates application-level white listing?
A. Allow everything and deny specific executable files.
B. Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files.
C. Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily.
D. Allow specific files and deny everything else.
Answer: C

Question No : 6
For which reason can HTTPS traffic make security monitoring difficult?
A. encryption
B. large packet headers
C. Signature detection takes longer.
D. SSL interception
Answer: D

Question No : 7
According to RFC 1035 which transport protocol is recommended for use with DNS queries?
A. Transmission Control Protocol
B. Reliable Data Protocol
C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
D. User Datagram Protocol
Answer: B

Question No : 8
One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems. What does CIA mean in this context?
A. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability
B. Confidentiality, Identity, and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Authorization
D. Confidentiality, Identity, and Authorization
Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type.   https://www.leads4pass.com/642-887.html dumps Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?  642-887 dumps
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B
642-887
QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress,classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.  642-887 dumps
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

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The Latest Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Study Guide Online Free Update

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Question No : 1
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Answer: D
300-320
Question No : 2
Which OSPF option can you configure to latest 300-320 dumps connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a nonbackbone area?
A. route summarization
B. a virtual link
C. an NSSA
D. a static OSPF neighbor
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
Answer: B,C
300-320
Question No : 4
Why is QoS important for in-band management?
A. It supports remote management when traffic volume is high.
B. It supports proper routing.
C. It supports network security against DoS attacks and worm outbreaks.
D. It supports network redundancy.
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: A,F

Question No : 6
A designer should have which three technologies in the latest 300-320 network before configuring MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. MPLS
B. LDP
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. VSS
E. vPC
F. VRRP
Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 7
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?
A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer7
Answer: D

Question No : 8
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
From which location can https://www.leads4pass.com/300-208.html dumps you run reports on endpoint profiling?
A. Reports > Operations > Catalog > Endpoint
B. Operations > Reports > Catalog > Endpoint
C. Operations > Catalog > Reports > Endpoint D. Operations > Catalog > Endpoint
Correct Answer: B

300-208

QUESTION 2
Which two services are included in the Cisco 300-208 ISE posture service? (Choose two.)
A. posture administration
B. posture run-time
C. posture monitoring
D. posture policing
E. posture catalog
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What is a requirement for 300-208 pdf posture administration services in Cisco ISE?
A. at least one Cisco router to store Cisco ISE profiling policies
B. Cisco NAC Agents that communicate with the Cisco ISE server
C. an ACL that points traffic to the Cisco ISE deployment
D. the advanced license package must be installed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that 300-208 are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are true? (Choose two.)
A. They send endpoint data to AAA servers.
B. They collect endpoint attributes.
C. They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies.
D. They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints.
E. They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles.
F. They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 5
What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify 300-208 dumps certificate on an ISE device?
A. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
B. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
C. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.Download the CA server certificate.
3.Access the ISE server and submit the CA request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
D. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.Download the CA server certificate.
3.Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What implementation must be 300-208 vce added to the WLC to enable 802.1X and CoA for wireless endpoints?
A. the ISE
B. an ACL
C. a router
D. a policy server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the 300-208 initial steps must you perform to add the ISE to the WLC?
A. 1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Administration > Authentication > New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
B. 1. With a Web browser, establish an FTP connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Security > Administration > New.
3.Add additional security features for FTP authentication.
C. 1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Authentication > New.
3.Enter ACLs and Authentication methods to begin the configuration.
D. 1. With a Web browser connect, establish an HTTPS connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Security > Authentication > New.
3.Enter server values to begin the configuration.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 640-692
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices
Version: Demo

640-692

QUESTION 1
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which type if memory is used to permanently 640-692 store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two of the following are component 640-692 of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
A null modem cable uses which adapter type?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. RS-323
D. RS-232
E. USB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
TFTP is a simple protocol files, such as a Cisco 640-692 IOS or configuration file, from one device to another. Which device cannot be configured to be used as a TFTP server?
A. Cisco router
B. Cisco switch
C. Computer
D. Modem
E. Cisco wireless LAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which command sends an echo request packet to the largest host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. telnet
B. connect
C. access
D. echo
E. ping
Correct Answer: E

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Version: Demo

300-101

QUESTION 1
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup 300-101 network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation:
Enabling PPPoE in a VPDN Group
Perform this task to enable https://www.leads4pass.com/300-101.html  dumps PPPoE in a virtual private dial-up network (VPDN) group.
Restrictions
This task applies only to releases prior to Cisco IOS Release 12.2(13)T.
SUMMARY STEPS
1.enable
2.configure terminal
3.vpdn enable
4.vpdn-group name
5.request-dialin
6.protocol pppoe DETAILED STEPS Command or Action Purpose Step 1 enable Enables privileged EXEC mode. Example: · Enter your password if Router> enable prompted. Step 2 configure 300-101 terminal Enters global configuration mode. Example: Router# configure terminal Step 3 vpdn enable Enables virtual private dialup Example: networking. Router(config)# vpdn enable Step 4 vpdn-group name Associates a VPDN group with a Example: customer or VPDN profile. Router(config)# vpdn-group group1 Step 5 request-dialin Creates a request-dialin VPDN Example: subgroup. Router(config-vpdn)# request-dialin Step 6 protocol pppoe Enables the VPDN 300-101 exam subgroup to Example: establish PPPoE Router(config-vpdn-req-in)# pro tocol pppoe

QUESTION 2
A network engineer has been asked to ensure 300-101 that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation: With PPPoE, the two authentication options are PAP and CHAP. When CHAP is enabled on an interface and a remote device attempts to connect to it, the access server sends a CHAP packet to https://www.leads4pass.com/300-101.html dumps the remote device. The CHAP packet requests or “challenges” the remote device to respond. The challenge packet consists of an ID, a random number, and the host name of the local router.
When the remote device receives the challenge packet, it concatenates the ID, the remote device’s password, and the random number, and then encrypts all of it using the remote device’s password. The remote device sends the results 300-101 back to the access server, along with the name associated with the password used in the encryption process. When the access server receives the response, it uses the name it received to retrieve a password stored in its user database.
The retrieved password should be the same password the remote device used in its encryption process. The access server then encrypts the concatenated information with the newly retrieved  password–if the result matches the result sent in the response packet, authentication succeeds. The benefit of using CHAP authentication is that the remote device’s password is never transmitted in clear text (encrypted). This prevents other devices from stealing it and gaining illegal access to the ISP’s network.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/route2.html

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210-065

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QUESTION 1
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.)
A. Scheduling of video conference calls
B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences
C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking
D. Centralized management of conference resources
E. SMTP email event notification
F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore
G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy
H. Automated resource optimization
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 2
Which three features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose three.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. FindMe
E. Jabber for Windows
F. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Correct Answer: C

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