Lead4Pass HPE0-P27 dumps 2023 update Fully upgraded! Contains 157 latest exam questions and answers, verified by a professional team to be true and effective!
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You are designing a custom HPE GreenLaKe solution and have created solution BOMs.
Is this the next step in the process?
Solution: Obtain the 1st price OCA files from the Distributor
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
Is this an advantage of HPE GreenLake over traditional infrastructure? Solution: aligns cost with use.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Question 14:
Can customers use HPE GreenLake to achieve this business goal? Solution: Increase the time between hardware refreshes.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
Is this something that must be done before order booking? Solution: Transition manager confirms site readiness
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
…
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Lead4Pass HPE2-W07 dumps are Essential exam materials for the 2023 HP Selling Aruba Products and Solutions certification exam.
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HPE2-W07 dumps 2023 online reading 15 questions and answers
A customer has an Aruba ESP (Edge Services Platform) solution. A site uses an AP-only deployment model. Later the customer wants to use gateways.
A. Add the gateways, use a thorn to control the existing APs. and use the gateways\’ Ul to manage the network.
B. Add the gateways, there is no need to change the existing APs\’ mode, and the gateway can be managed by Aruba Central
C. Replace the existing APs will) now Campus APs, and then add the gateways.
D. Change the Apps\’ mode to Campus mode. upgrade to campus software and then add the gateways
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
A retailer has large stores that have Inconsistent 5G coverage, which leads to complaints from customers. The retailer wants a simple way to give customers the 5G experience. Which Aruba feature should you emphasize to address these goals?
A. Dynamic Segmentation
B. Air Pass
C. Smart Rate
D. Zero Touch Provisioning
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
What is a distinguishing feature of Aruba CX switches for a modern data center environment?
A. The switches provide a rich set of CLI show commands that enhance visibility all the way down to virtual machines (VMs).
B. The switches are based upon a micro-services architecture that makes them resilient and fault-tolerant.
C. The switches support one of the longest feature lists of any data center switches in the industry.
D. The switches are designed as core switches for large, three-tier data center network architectures.
Correct Answer: D
Question 4:
For which customer is HPE Office Connect OC20 APs the right solution?
A. a university that needs to provide home wireless services and VPN access for faculty
B. a medium business with 570 employees that needs a simple cloud-managed wireless solution
C. a small business with 46 employees and the need for simple plug-and-play Wi-Fi
D. a retailer that needs to support a large number of small branch sites
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
What is one benefit of the Aruba Instant On mobile app for partners?
A. The app integrates with Aruba Central, which allows customers to win more states by emphasizing Central\’s AlOPs benefits
B. The app provides remote management so that partners can easily offer management services for multiple Instant On customers.
C. The app provides simplified proposal and quoting toots, designed to help partners close Instant On states more quickly.
D. The app opens another revenue stream for partners because customers must purchase licenses to use it.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
You are proposing an Aruba ESP solution to a customer who is interested in simplifying network management. What is the benefit that Aruba net edit brings to a solution with Aruba CX Switches?
A. Net edit automates wireless network optimization, allowing Aruba APs to adjust their settings to changing conditions
B. Net edit helps customers automate the inventory of their complete networks from switches to APS and clients
C. Net edit helps customers more easily audit Aruba CX switches settings and software
D. Net edit helps customers more easily create and customize policies that apply to wired and wireless clients
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
A customer asks about whether Aruba ESP provides Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) capabilities. What should you reply?
A. Aruba Threat Detection, within Aruba Central, provides IPS capabilities.
B. The customer must add Aruba ClearPass OnGuard to Policy Manager to receive these capabilities.
C. The customer must Integrate the solution with third-party tools to receive any IPS capabilities.
D. Aruba ClearPass Device Insight provides IPS capabilities.
Correct Answer: B
Question 8:
What is a key Aruba SD-Branch differentiator against many competitors?
A. Aruba offers the only branch solution that is targeted specifically for small businesses
B. Aruba SD-Branch offers all of the benefits of Aruba ESP (Edge Services Platform) in the branch.
C. Aruba SD-Branch is a highly specialized solution that is focused exclusively on WAN connectivity and optimization
D. Aruba has the largest market presence for SD-WAN and is the only Leader recognized by Gartner.
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
What is the Aruba Experience Edge Platform?
A. It is an experience-driven portal that provides access to a partnership ecosystem with Aruba technology partners.
B. It complies with the suite of products in the Aruba SD-WAN solution, including edge gateways and centralized gateways.
C. It is an analytics-driven security framework that includes Aruba IntroSpect, RF Protect, and ClearPass.
D. It comprises the Aruba infrastructure, software, and partnerships that work together to improve user network experiences.
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
A customer is interested in Aruba ESP. but has policies that prevent using public cloud services. Which solution should you recommend for managing the ESP solution?
A. Aruba AirWave
B. Aruba Meridian
C. Aruba Instant On the app
D. Aruba Central on-premises (COP)
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
You ate proposing a Managed Connectivity Services (MCS) solution to a customer. What benefit should you explain that Aruba Services Manager (ASM) provides as part of this solution?
A. It provides essential support entitlements with a range of flexible options for hardware replacement.
B. It grants customers visibility into their network infrastructure, speeding up tasks such as threat assessment.
C. It gives customers a single-pane-of-glass solution for managing contextual access policies for both wired and wireless access.
D. It enables customers to bundle Aruba support services with support services for integrated third-party tools.
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
What is an example of how Aruba Central improves day-to-day network operations?
A. It offers a simple interface and self-service portal. In which users can log In and easily solve their issues on their own.
B. It gives IT visibility across the complete network so that IT can better determine the source of issues.
C. It gives IT deep visibility into issues on the server side, whether servers are on-prem or in the cloud.
D. It provides agents, which IT can Install on endpoints to automatically remediate network issues.
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
What is one way that the Aruba approach to architecture makes Aruba stand out against the competition?
A. Aruba provides customers with a choice of five different architectures to provide greater flexibility.
B. Aruba offers a simpler and more robust architecture by avoiding integration with third-party solutions.
C. Aruba offers a software-defined architecture with a single platform and unified wired and wireless.
D. Aruba provides two optimized architectures based on different software, one for the branch and one for the campus.
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
What is an example of how customers can benefit from Aruba AI search
A. IT can create more accurate device inventories using AI search\’s device profiling capabilities
B. IT security teams can ensure consistent policies are applied to users no matter where they move on the network
C. The tech support team can quickly locate the address associated with a user who is experiencing a problem
D. Developers can easily build location-based services that track user devices and provide personalized experiences
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
A customer asks what makes Aruba AlOps different from other types of troubleshooting tools. What should you explain?
A. Aruba AlOps provides recommendations of the service level expectations for IT to set baselines.
B. Aruba AlOps relies on troubleshooting technologies, such as SNMP traps, that IT is probably already using, but presents the traps in a central dashboard.
C. Aruba AlOps not only points out problems, but it also provides actionable recommendations such as the precise AP settings to adjust in order to solve Issues.
D. Aruba AlOps identifies if one AP switch port or WAN link is down.
Correct Answer: D
…
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Lead4pass’s HPE0-J68 dumps are reviewed by our IT team, real and effective, using PDF and VCE learning tools to complete the HPE Storage Solutions certification exam practice to help you successfully pass the target exam on the first try.
Experience HPE0-J68 Online Practice Questions from Lead4Pass HPE0-J68 dumps 2022:
Verification answer at the end of the article
QUESTION 1:
A customer has a SAN infrastructure with the HPE C-class blade Enclosure, and a mix of ProLiant G7,gen8, and Ge9 servers. They require a new storage platform … How can you confirm the storage array will be supported in the existing environment?
A. Check recommended firmware levels in the HP SAN design reference guide to ensure firmware compatibility
B. Document existing server and SAN information, and consult SPOCK to ensure firmware compatibility
C. Design and array with the latest firmware, and recommend that the customer engage HPE point Next to upgrade the existing hardware
D. Design an array with older versions of the firmware to ensure compatibility
QUESTION 2:
What is the benefit of HPE Synergy? (Choose two.)
A. It supports up to three HPE StoreVirtual VSA nodes for storage RAID. B. It can compose and reclaim DAS storage. C. It supports HPE BladeSystem c-class FlexFabric interconnect modules. D. It can use HPE 3PAR File Persona for object storage. E. It can prevent block storage services from HPE 3PAR as part of the resource pool.
QUESTION 3:
What are the benefits of HPE synergy? (Select 2)
A. It can present block storage services from HPE 3par as part of the resource pool B. It supports up to 3 HPE store Virtual VSA nodes for storage RAID C. It can use HPE 3PAR file persona for objet storage D. It can compose and reclaim DAS storage E. It supports HPE blade system C-Class Flex Fabrics Interconnect module (need to check)
QUESTION 4:
You are planning a single-site Nimble solution with iSCSI connectivity. Two 10GbE SFP+ dual-port NICs are included in the configuration. You designed an Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) stack with HPE FlexFabric 5900CP switches. Which statement is correct when discussing the IRF limits for this configuration?
A. When connecting an iSCSI storage to an IRF stack, a minimum of four 10GbE ports must be used per switch. B. A maximum of two switches can be used in an IRF stack when connecting storage. C. In an IRF stack with storage connectivity, the 40GbE ports cannot be used. D. The used IRF ports for iSCSI traffic have to be configured as 10GbE converged ports.
QUESTION 5:
You are advising a customer on a new backup strategy to deploy HPE StoreOnce. What should you recommend to ensure the best storage utilization and performance?
A. consolidate activity windows for housekeeping tasks B. size solution for a single backup device C. combine management and backup Ethernet traffic D. use separate backup targets for different data types
QUESTION 6:
During the Technology workshop, the customer asks about the difference between converged and fiber channel switches. What would be the benefits of using flex fabric switches in a fiber channel storage environment?
A. Support for combining multiple physical switches into one virtual switch with a single IP address
B. Support for six Ethernet and two fiber channels, or six Ethernet and two ISCSI or eight Ethernet adapters per server.
C. Zones can be configured for QoS with high, medium, and low priorities within a fabric on a zone-by-zone basic
D. In-flight compression and encryption provide efficient link utilization and security
QUESTION 7:
You are designing a new HPE 3PAR StoreServ all-flash array for the customer.. Which ratio should you expect to have the highest efficiency?
A. Read/write ratio B. Reclamation ratio C. Compaction Ratio D. Thin provisioning ratio
QUESTION 8:
A customer wants to implement a virtualized environment and wants to provide independent storage access to individual virtual servers. Which feature needs to be enabled on the B-series FC switches to support this solution?
A. FCIP B. NPIV C. ALPA D. RSCN
QUESTION 9:
A customer has an excisting environment with 3PAR, Nimble, and MSA They are providing file servicing from all arrays with multiple virtual machines but preference is not adequate. What should you add to the environment to increase performance, increase availability, and reduce management overhead?
A. StoreEasy 3850 Gateway B. StoreEasy 5000 C. 3PAR File Persona D. Simplvity 380
QUESTION 10:
You are adding a new host for an HPE 3PAR StoreServ proof-of-concept. In addition to the hostname, What is the minimum information that is required to create a host profile?
A. Host Persona B. Host MAC C. Host set D. Host WWN
QUESTION 11:
A customer is concerned about the business risks of non-compliance for long-term data protection, retention, immutability, and encryption on petabytes of data consisting of millions of objects in a global namespace across multiple geographic locations. Which products should you recommend to the customer to address their concern? (Choose two.)
A. HPE StoreOnce Systems B. HPE Complete Veeam C. HPE Complete iTernity iCAS D. HPE Scality RING on HPE Apollo Servers E. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 9000
QUESTION 12:
Which resource provides configurations for HPE tested and referenced configurations in a software-defined storage environment?
A. HPE Storage Sizer B. One Config Advanced C. NinjaStars D. StoreVirtual VSA Ready Nodes
QUESTION 13:
A customer has a new Nimble CS3000 21T storage system and is facing latency issues for his 2TB ERP database.
What would be a design approach to solve this issue?
A. Perform controller upgrade to a Nimbel CS3000 storage systems B. Add additional SSD drives as a cache to the system and PIN the volume C. Enable storage tiering on the system and map the volume to the new tier D. Change RAID of the drives to RAID -1 and setup the quality of services for the volume
……
Verify answer:
Number:
Answers:
Explain:
Q1
B
Q2
BE
Q3
AD
Q4
A
Q5
A
Q6
A
Q7
C
Q8
B
Q9
A
Q10
D
Q11
AC
Q12
D
HPE StoreVirtual VSA Ready Nodes–HPE tested reference configurations on HPE ProLiant servers that address typical virtualization and remote office use cases and deployment of converged solutions.
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The HPE6-A81 exam dumps maps to the Aruba Certified ClearPass Specialist written exam objectives: Design, configure and troubleshoot various ClearPass products commonly used in large-scale customer deployments. This includes ClearPass Policy Manager, Guest, Analytics, Onboarding, Onguard, Status, Clustering, Redundancy, and External Server Integration.
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Details of the HPE6-A81 exam you need to know:
Vendor:HP Exam Code: HPE6-A81 Exam Name: Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam Certification: Aruba Certified ClearPass Professional (ACCP) Number of questions: 60 Types of questions: multiple responses, single response Exam duration: 2 hours Passing score: 65% Languages: English Exam Type: Proctored
Next, get a portion of the hpe6-a81 exam dumps for free:
QUESTION 1:
Refer to the exhibit:
You have configured Onboard and cannot get it working The customer has sent you the above screenshots.
How would you resolve the issue?
A. Re-provision the client by running the QuickConnect application as Administrator
B. Install a public signed server authentication certificate on the ClearPass server for EAP
C. Reconnect the client and select the correct certificate when prompted
D. Copy the [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the correct OCSP URL
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2:
You are integrating a Postgres SQL server with the ClearPass Policy Manager.
What steps will you follow to complete the integration process? (Select three)
A. Click on the default filter name with pre-defined filter queries and check the box to enable as role.
B. Specify a new filter with filter queries to fetch authentication and authorization attributes.
C. Attribute Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.
D. Create a new Endpoint context server and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.
E. Alias Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.
F. Create a new authentication source and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 3:
A customer has completed all the required configurations in the Windows server in order for Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) to sign Onboard device TLS certificates.
The Onboard portal and the Onboard services are also configured.
Testing shows that the Client certificates ate still signed by the Onboard Certificate Authority and not ADCS.
How can you help the customer with the situation?
A. Educate the customer that, when integrating with Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) the Onboard CA will the same authority used for signing me final TLS certificate of the device.
B. Configure the identity certificate signer as Active Directory Certificate Services and enter the ADCS URL http://ADCSVVeoEnrollmentServemostname/certsrv in the OnBoard Provisioning settings.
C. Enable access to EST servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.
D. Enable access to SCEP servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4:
How does the RadSec improve the RADIUS message exchange? (Select two.)
A. It can be used on an unsecured network or the Internet.
B. It builds a TTLS tunnel between the NAD and ClearPass.
C. Only the NAD needs to trust the ClearPass Certificate.
D. It encrypts the entire RADIUS message.
E. It uses UDP to exchange the radius packets.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 5:
A customer has deployed an OnGuard Solution to all the corporate devices using a group policy rule to push the OnGuard Agents.
The network administrator is complaining that some of the agents are communicating to the ClearPass server that is located in a DMZ, outside the firewall The network administrator wants all of the agents System Health Validation traffic to stay inside the Management subnets.
What can the ClearPass administrator do to move the traffic only to the ClearPass Management Ports?
A. Edit the agent.conf file being deployed to the clients to use the ClearPass Management Port for SHV updates.
B. Select the correct OnGuard Agent installer, and use the one configured for Management Port for the clients.
C. Configure a Policy Manager Zone mapping so the OnGuard agent will use the Management Port IP.
D. Filter TCP port 6658 on the firewall, forcing the OnGuard agent to use the ClearPass Management port.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
A customer is complaining that some of the devices, in their manufacturing network, are not getting profiled while other loT devices from the same subnet have been correctly profiled.
The network switches have been configured for DHCP IP helpers and IF-MAP has been configured on the Aruba Controllers.
What can the customer do to discover those devices as well? (Select two.)
A. Update the Fingerprints Dictionary to the latest in case new devices have been added.
B. Open a TAC case to help you troubleshoot the DHCP device profile functionality.
C. Add the ClearPass Server IP as an IP helper-address on the default gateway as well.
D. Allow time for IF-MAP service on the controller to discover the new devices as well.
E. Manually create a new device fingerprint for the devices that are not being profiled.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 7:
You have recently implemented a serf-registration portal in ClearPass Guest to be used on a Guest SSID broadcast from an Aruba controller. Your customer has started complaining that the users are not able to reliably access the internet after clicking the login button on the receipt page.
They tell you that the users will click the login button multiple times and alter about a minute they gain access.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The self-registration page is configured with a 1-minute login delay.
B. The guest client is delayed getting an IP address from the DHCP server.
C. The guest users are assigned a firewall user role that has a rate limit.
D. The enforcement profile on ClearPass is set up with an lETF:session delay.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
You have configured a Guest SSID with Captive-portal Web Authentication and MAC authentication The MAC caching expiry time set to 12 hours and the Guest Account expiration time is set to 8 hours.
What will happen if the guest were to disconnect from the SSID and re-connect 9 hours later?
A. The client will tail the MAC authentication and be denied access to the Guest SSID.
B. The client will successfully pass the mac authentication until the mac caching time expires.
C. The client will successfully pass the MAC authentication but still be redirected to captive portal page.
D. The client will fail the MAC authentication and will be redirected to the Captive-portal login page.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9:
Refer to the exhibit:
When creating a new report, there is an option to send report Notifications by Email.
Where is the email server configured?
A. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Endpoint Context servers under Administration.
B. In the Insight Reports Interface under Administration on the sidebar menu.
C. In the insight report on the next screen of the report definition.
D. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Messaging setup under Administration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
Refer to the exhibit:
A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown.
What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)
A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process
B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.
C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to me network
D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).
E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate
F. Configure the Network Settings in Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 11:
A Customer has these requirements: * 2.000 loT endpoints that use MAC authentication * 6,000 endpoints using a mix of username/password and certificate (Corporate/BYOD) based authentication * 1,000 guest endpoints at peak usage that use guest self-registration * 1500 BYOD devices estimated as 3 devices per User (500 users) * 2,500 endpoints that have OnGuard installed and connect on a daily basis
What licenses should be installed to meet customer requirements?
A. 11,500 Access, 500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
B. 13.000 Access, 1.500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
C. 11,500 Access, 1,500 Onboard, 2.500 Onguard
D. 9,000 Access, 500 Onboard. 2.500 Onguard
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12:
What type of EAP certificate are you able to use on ClearPass? (Select two.)
A. Self signed, when all the clients are Onboarded with the same Root CA as the Self signed certificate.
B. Private signed, when the clients are onboarded or are part of the organization domain.
C. Private signed, when some clients are onboarded and some are not part of the organization.
D. Public signed, when not all of the clients are part of the organization domain.
E. Self signed, when all the clients are part of the organization domain.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13:
A customer is looking to implement a Web-Based Health Check solution with the following requirements:
for the HR user\’s client devices, check if a USB stick is mounted. for the RandD user\’s client devices, check if the hard disk is fully encrypted. The Web-Based Health Check service has been configured but the customer it is not sure how to design the Profile Policy. How can be accomplished this customer request?
A. create two Posture Policies and customize the OnGuard Agent (Persistent or Dissolvable) to select the correct SHV checks
B. create one Posture Policy and define Rules Conditions that will apply different Tokens for each SHV check condition
C. create two Posture Policies and use the Restrict by Roles option to filter for HR and RandD user roles and apply the correct SHV checks
D. create one Posture Policy to check the HR users client devices and use the NAP Agent to check RandD users client devices
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Read the following HPE6-A78 free exam questions and answers:
QUESTION 1:
You need to deploy an Aruba instant AP where users can physically reach It. What are two recommended options for enhancing security for management access to the AP? (Select two )
A. Disable Its console ports B. Place a Tamper Evident Label (TELS) over its console port C. Disable the Web Ul. D. Configure WPA3-Enterpnse security on the AP E. install a CA-signed certificate
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2:
You have an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). for which you are already using Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to authenticate access to the Web Ul with usernames and passwords You now want to enable managers to use certificates to log in to the Web Ul CPPM will continue to act as the external server to check the names in managers\’ certificates and tell the MC the managers\’ correct rote in addition to enabling certificate authentication.
What is a step that you should complete on the MC?
A. Verify that the MC has the correct certificates, and add RadSec to the RADIUS server configuration for CPPM
B. install all of the managers\’ certificates on the MC as OCSP Responder certificates
C. Verify that the MC trusts CPPM\’s HTTPS certificate by uploading a trusted CA certificate Also, configure a CPPM username and password on the MC
D. Create a local admin account mat uses certificates in the account, specify the correct trusted CA certificate and external authentication
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3:
A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba Campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution.
What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?
A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\’s HTTPS certificate
B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports
C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Swrtches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\’s IP address.
D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4:
What role does the Aruba ClearPass Device Insight Analyzer play in the Device Insight architecture?
A. It resides in the cloud and manages licensing and configuration for Collectors B. It resides on-prem and provides the span port to which traffic is mirrored for deep analytics. C. It resides on-prem and is responsible for running active SNMP and Nmap scans D. It resides In the cloud and applies machine learning and supervised crowdsourcing to metadata sent by Collectors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5:
What correctly describes the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) in the specified wireless security protocol?
A. In WPA3-Enterprise, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.
B. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.
C. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is derived directly from the passphrase and is the same tor every session.
D. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is the same for each session and is communicated to clients that authenticate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6:
Your Aruba Mobility Master-based solution has detected a rogue AP Among other information the ArubaOS Detected Radios page lists this Information for the AP SSID = PubllcWiFI BSSID = a8M27 12 34:56 Match method = Exact match Match type = Eth-GW-wired-Mac-Table The security team asks you to explain why this AP is classified as a rogue. What should you explain?
A. The AP Is connected to your LAN because It is transmitting wireless traffic with your network\’s default gateway\’s MAC address as a source MAC Because it does not belong to the company, it is a rogue
B. The ap has a BSSID mat matches authorized client MAC addresses. This indicates that the AP is spoofing the MAC address to gam unauthorized access to your company\’s wireless services, so It is a rogue
C. The AP has been detected as launching a DoS attack against your company\’s default gateway. This qualities it as a rogue which needs to be contained with wireless association frames immediately
D. The AP is spoofing a routers MAC address as its BSSID. This indicates mat, even though WIP cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your LAN. it is a rogue.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7:
Which attack is an example of social engineering?
A. An email Is used to impersonate a Dank and trick users into entering their bank login information on a fake website page.
B. A hacker eavesdrops on insecure communications, such as the Remote Desktop Program (RDP). and discovers login credentials.
C. A user visits a website and downloads a file that contains a worm, which sell-replicates throughout the network.
D. An attack exploits an operating system vulnerability and locks out users until they pay the ransom.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
What are the roles of 802.1X authenticators and authentication servers?
A. The authenticator stores the user account database, while the server stores access policies. B. The authenticator supports only EAP, while the authentication server supports only RADIUS. C. The authenticator is a RADIUS client and the authentication server is a RADIUS server. D. The authenticator makes access decisions and the server communicates them to the supplicant.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9:
What is a Key feature of my ArubaOS firewall?
A. The firewall is stateful which means that n can track client sessions and automatically allow return traffic for permitted sessions
B. The firewall Includes application layer gateways (ALGs). which it uses to filter Web traffic based on the reputation of the destination website.
C. The firewall examines all traffic at Layer 2 through Layer 4 and uses source IP addresses as the primary way to determine how to control traffic.
D. The firewall is designed to fitter traffic primarily based on wireless 802.11 headers, making it ideal for mobility environments
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
What is a vulnerability of an unauthenticated Dime-Heliman exchange?
A. A hacker can replace the public values exchanged by the legitimate peers and launch an MITM attack.
B. A brute force attack can relatively quickly derive Diffie-Hellman private values if they are able to obtain public values
C. Diffie-Hellman with elliptic curve values is no longer considered secure in modem networks, based on NIST recommendations.
D. Participants must agree on a passphrase in advance, which can limit the usefulness of Diffie- Hell man in practical contexts.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
What is the benefit of deploying Aruba ClearPass Device insight?
A. Highly accurate endpoint classification for environments with many devices types, including Internet of Things (loT)
B. visibility into devices\’ 802.1X supplicant settings and automated certificate deployment
C. Agent-based analysts of devices\’ security settings and health status, with the ability to implement quarantining
D. Simpler troubleshooting of ClearPass solutions across an environment with multiple ClearPass Policy Managers
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
You need to ensure that only management stations in subnet 192.168.1.0/24 can access the ArubaOS- Switches\’ CLI. Web Ul. and REST interfaces The company also wants to let managers use these stations to access other parts of the network. What should you do?
A. Establish a Control Plane Policing class that selects traffic from 192.168 1.0/24. B. Specify 192.168.1.0.255.255.255.0 as authorized IP manager address C. Configure the switch to listen for these protocols on OOBM only. D. Specify vlan 100 as the management vlan for the switches.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
How should admins deal with vulnerabilities that they find in their systems?
A. They should apply fixes, such as patches, to close the vulnerability before a hacker exploits it. B. They should add the vulnerability to their Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE). C. They should classify the vulnerability as malware. a DoS attack or a phishing attack. D. They should notify the security team as soon as possible that the network has already been breached.
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QUESTION 1:
You need to qualify a customer for an Aruba wireless solution. What is one question that you should ask to start qualifying the customer?
A. What types of applications and workloads are experiencing issues? B. Are you ready to drop your wired network and go all wireless? C. How much budget do you have allocated for IoT and other initiatives? D. How much in-house expertise do you have in 802.11ac and 802.1ax solutions?
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2:
A retailer has large stores that have Inconsistent 5G coverage, which leads to complaints from customers. The retailer wants a simple way to give customers the 5G experience. Which Aruba feature should you emphasize to address these goals?
A. Dynamic Segmentation B. Air Pass C. Smart Rate D. Zero Touch Provisioning
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
What is one key advantage of Aruba wireless solutions as compared to Cisco Meraki solutions?
A. Aruba offers cloud subscription-based licensing for all APs while Cisco Meraki requires a significant CAPEX expenditure.
B. Aruba offers beamforming in APs to improve wireless coverage while Cisco Meraki APS does not support any such feature.
C. Aruba offers integration with an extensive ecosystem while Cisco Meraki offers little third-party integration.
D. Aruba offers one simple choice for management while Cisco Meraki has a confusing array of management options.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
You want to determine if a customer is a good prospect for an Aruba Meridian and beacon solution. What is one topic that you should discuss?
A. how much time do IT staff members spend performing basic troubleshooting and whether does this interferes with their ability to innovate
B. how IT prioritizes unified management and integrating wired and wireless access
C. how concerned the customer is about ensuring that only authorized employees can access the wireless network
D. how the company is seeking to improve customer satisfaction scores and the role of mobile apps in their strategy.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5:
What is one key competitive advantage of Aruba AirWave over Cisco Prime?
A. Aruba AirWave is cloud-based, while Cisco Prime only offers on-premises management. B. Aruba AirWave integrates network access control, while Cisco Prime does not. C. Cisco Prime-only supports Cisco, while Aruba AirWave offers multi-vendor support. D. Cisco Prime only offers single-server deployments, while Aruba offers larger deployments.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
Which Aruba solution uses Bluetooth Low Energy to precisely track the location of mobile users through their mobile devices?
A. Aruba Asset Tags B. Aruba APs in Air Monitor (AM) mode C. Aruba Beacons D. Aruba APs in Spectrum Monitor (SM) mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7:
Your customer emphasizes the need to simplify network operations. What is one reason for recommending Aruba 5400R zl2 switches for the customer\’s campus network?
A. Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) allows customers to combine 5400R switches into a single virtual switch which simplifies management tasks and provides more resilient connectivity.
B. Traditional stacking enables network administrators to manage up to 10 5400R switches from a single GUI.
C. Backplane stacking enables multiple 5400R switches to function as a single logical switch, using dedicated modules and stacking cables to integrate the switches.
D. Virtual Switching Extension (VSX) provides redundancy for management modules on the 5400R switches, with seamless failover.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
What is one characteristic of HPE and Aruba Edge-to-Cloud Solutions?
A. They provide RESTful APIs to make them open to easy integration with other applications.
B. They use a proprietary approach to technology to ensure that customers deploy HPE and Aruba from end to end.
C. They are designed for zero-touch management in which IT admins do not need to customize any features.
D. They offer a better ROI when purchased through capital expenditures than when consumed as a service.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9:
A customer is interested in Aruba ESP. but has policies that prevent using public cloud services. Which solution should you recommend for managing the ESP solution?
A. Aruba AirWave B. Aruba Meridian C. Aruba Instant On the app D. Aruba Central on-premises (COP)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10:
You are proposing Aruba Wi-Fi 6 APs as part of an Aruba ESP solution. The customer says, \’Many vendors offer VA-Fi What makes Aruba different?” How can you explain that Aruba Air Slice distinguishes Aruba\’s Wi-Fi 6 solutions?
A. Air Slice disconnects non-Wi-Fi 6 clients from the network to prevent thorn slowing down the entire network.
B. Air Slice uses signature-based scanning to doted compromised wireless devices and places them in quarantine
C. Air Slice provides rate- and application-based quality of service (QoS) that improves users\’ experience on the network.
D. Air Slice enhances security for all wireless clients, particularly loT ones, by implementing micro-segmentation.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11:
A customer wants to get branch networks up and running more quickly. Which Aruba features or solutions should you emphasize?
A. Installer app and Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP) B. Smart Rate and Air Slice C. Aruba Fabric Composer (AFC) and Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) D. Al Assist and Al Search
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12:
Where do analysts predict the majority of data will be generated by 2022?
A. The public cloud B. On-prem data centers C. Co-located data centers D. The edge
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13:
You are meeting with a large hotel that needs a network upgrade. What is one benefit of Aruba solutions that you should emphasize to address a common concern of such customers?
A. better access control over IoT deployments using either Aruba AirWave or Aruba Central
B. simple management experience and end-to-end visibility for troubleshooting with Aruba IntroSpect
C. a higher quality guest wireless experience with features such as ClientMatch, AirGroup, and Cape Networks
D. better security that helps the hotel comply with regulations, based on Aruba Cape Networks sensors
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QUESTION 1:
Your customer has an environment with five HPE Synergy Composers and 15 HPE OneView appliances managing servers that run VMware. The customer is having a hard time managing their servers.
What can the customer do to simplify the management of this complex environment?
A. deploy HPE OneView for VMware vCenter Server B. deploy HPE OneView Global Dashboard C. use an Ansible playbook D. integrate all HPE OneView appliances and HPE Composers with Active Directory
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2:
Your customer plans to use HPE OneView to manage a small environment based on HPE ProLiant servers that include G7 and Gen10 systems.
What should you explain to this customer?
A. HPE ProLiant G7 and Gen10 cannot be managed using the same appliance B. HPE Management Agent must be installed for HPE ProLiant Gen10 servers C. Not all of the features will be available for HPE ProLiant G7 systems D. HPE ProLiant Gen10 servers do not need an HPE OneView license
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3:
You try to add a new connection within a server profile, but an operation fails when you try to commit the changes.
What is a possible reason?
A. You tried to add an additional connection above the limit B. The server is powered on C. The server does not have an HPE OneView license applied D. The server is powered off
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4:
HOTSPOT Click the option that will prevent the appliance from sending any email notifications or forwarding any SNMP traps that are related to the server hardware. Hot Area:
You have created volumes using array management tools and imported the volumes to HPE OneView.
Which statement about these volumes is true?
A. Imported volumes are treated as private volumes and can be only used as boot volumes B. Volumes imported to HPE OneView are managed just like a volume created using HPE OneView C. Volumes imported to HPE OneView cannot be removed using the HPE OneView interface D. A snapshot for imported volumes can be created only by using array management tools
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6:
You originally configured boot mode for HPE ProLiant Gen10 server to Legacy BIOS\\' in an HPE OneView server profile and deployed an operating system. A few weeks later, you change the boot mode to theUEFI optimized\’ to leverage some features provided by this model.
What must you do next?
A. reset an iLO management processor to activate the new boot mode for the server B. reinstall an operating system, as UEFI is using a different drive format than Legacy BIOS C. reset BIOS settings to the defaults so UEFI settings can be applied D. reset BIOS settings to the defaults through the server profile after changing the boot mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
You want to update the firmware for only two HPE Synergy Virtual Connect SE 32Gb FC Modules of a large environment. From which level must this procedure be initiated?
A. Logical Enclosure B. Logical Interconnect C. Server Profile D. Logical Interconnect Group
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8:
Which statement regarding HPE OneView backup restore is true?
A. During backup restore, users with Administrator privileges can still log in to HPE OneView B. An HPE OneView backup can be used to restore individual components like server profile C. Users with Backup Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup D. Only users with Infrastructure Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about server connections is true?
A. LACP on downlinks is configured for Ethernet connection B. All connections within the server profile are using physical IDs C. Ethernet connection is configured to boot from PXE D. Storage array is connected directly to an HPE Synergy frame
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10:
You are creating a Logical Interconnect Group for a three-frame HPE Synergy solution with HPE Virtual Connect SE100Gb F32 Modules for Synergy.
In which scenario should you set redundancy for master modules to be highly available?
A. When storm control or loop protection will be enabled for Virtual Connect modules B. When each of the frames has two Virtual Connect modules installed C. When each Virtual Connect module is installed in a different frame D. When each Virtual Connect module is installed in a different fabric
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11:
Which locations are supported for HPE OneView remote scheduled backup? (Choose two.)
A. SCP B. HTTPS C. SFTP D. HTTP E. FTP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12:
How will setting the Purpose field within the network definition of a server profile impact the network traffic?
A. network purpose can give higher priority to a specific type of traffic B. network purpose will impact the traffic only if Virtual Connect modules are used C. network purpose will define QoS within Logical Interconnect D. network purpose does not affect the behavior of the network
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the storage pools shown is true?
A. Volumes created on the first storage pool cannot use data reduction technologies B. Both storage pools are in a managed state and can be used for volume provisioning C. HPE OneView can be used to configure volume replication between these pools D. Both storage pools have a license applied that enables management of these pools
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QUESTION 1:
A customer has a five-frame Synergy deployment with redundant Composers. An integrator needs to install Image Streamer. What must the integrator consider before taking the planned action?
A. Image Streamer requires the use of the MGMT port from both of the FLMs in the frame where the Image Streamer appliance is installed
B. The frame where the Image Streamer is being installed must not contain an Interconnect Module
C. The location of the Image Streamer must be manually modified through the Composer
D. A connection to the management network must be established to an FLM in the same frame that houses the Image Streamer
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2:
A customer needs to evaluate Image Streamer as Proof-of-Concept (PoC) in a test and development tab environment. At a minimum, what does a Synergy integrator need in order to support this requirement?
A. a three-frame environment with redundant composer and Image Streamer appliances B. a single frame with single composer and Image Streamer appliances C. a two-frame environment with a single composer and Image Streamer appliances D. a single frame with redundant Image Streamer appliances
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
A customer is considering implementing a DRS cluster, but they would like to know how DRS can help to achieve performance goals. How should an integrator respond?
A. When powering on a virtual machine, a DRS cluster can automatically place it on the optimal host.
B. Selected virtual machines will be assigned a higher priority when the number of physical resources will drop below a specific level.
C. A DRS cluster will migrate a virtual machine to a different host when available network bandwidth will drop below a specific level.
D. If more than 50 virtual machines will be running on a single host, the DRS cluster will configure CPU affinity to proportional resource allocation.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4:
A customer wants to implement HPE Global Dashboard for their environment based on HPE Synergy and HPE SimpliVity nodes. What must an integrator be aware of when deploying HPE Global Dashboard for this customer?
A. HPE Global Dashboard agent must be installed on HPE SimpliVity nodes B. The Single Sign-On feature is not supported for HPE SimpliVity nodes C. HPE SimpliVity nodes must be licensed within HPE Global Dashboard D. Only HPE SimpliVity 380 is supported because of the OmniStack hardware card
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5:
An integrator is validating an HPE Synergy solution design for a customer that has the following requirements: 20 half-height compute modules 2x 20Gb connectivity to each compute module single fabric domain for LAN and SAN connectivity single management network for managing the solution no single point of failure The compute modules boot from a 3PAR array connected to the Synergy Interconnect modules through a pair of Brocade Fibre Channel switches. Which components must be part of the solution? (Choose two.)
A. four HPE Synergy FC SE 40Gb F8 modules B. two HPE Synergy Composes C. two Frame Link Modules in each HPE Synergy 12000 Frame D. two HPE Synergy Image Streamers E. redundant Frame Link Module Front Panel
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6:
An integrator is performing an initial Synergy setup. How should the integrator initiate the hardware discovery?
A. Connect a Serial cable to the front panel, and open a session to the console B. Plug in the SUVi cable for the blade server, and attach a monitor C. Open a browser, and select Discover in the HPE Synergy Console D. Attach a display and a keyboard to the front panel, and click connect
As part of a Synergy implementation, an integrator needs to create 100 networks in a Logical Interconnect Groups (LIG) configuration. The network administrator for the end-of-row (EoR) switches provides a CSV file with the networks that need to be created. How should the integrator automate the creation of the 100 networks?
A. Upload the CSV file to the Composer, and execute the Create Networks wizard B. Start HPE SUT to migrate the CSV file to a Synergy configuration file, and upload it to the composer C. Use the HPE OneView PowerShell library to create the networks listed in the CSV file D. Configure Image Streamer to automate the network configuration
A customer needs to deploy the HPE Global Dashboard appliance, but experienced vCenter Server failure and cannot access ESXi servers. How can the customer connect to the specific ESXi server to power on important virtual machines?
A. Login directly to the ESXi system using an embedded Host Client
B. Use HPE Composer to restart key vCenter Server services remotely
C. Login to the vCenter Server on port 5480, which is used for backup vCenter Server and is deployed automatically
D. Login to the Web Client, which is independent of the vCenter Server and provides basic management features
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9:
A customer wants to boot Synergy compute nodes from external LUN located on HPE MSA 2050 SAN Storage. What should an integrator consider when implementing this configuration?
A. Using HPE Composer, only volumes up to 4TB can be created on the MSA2050 B. Additional integration license must be purchased for the MSA2050 and Synergy platforms C. Automated zoning functionality cannot be used, as MSA2050 is not supported in HPE Composer D. MSA2050 must be imported first to the HPE Composer before volume presentation can be done
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
A customer wants to expand their existing cluster using the Grow Cluster functionality from OneView for vCenter Server. Which OS build plan managed by HPE OneView for vCenter Server can the customer use?
A. ICsp-Based Deployment B. iLO Federation-Based Deployment C. Image Streamer-Based Deployment D. PXE-Based Deployment
What are valid uses for an IPv4 address pool when configuring an HPE Synergy solution? (Choose two.)
A. assignment of IP addresses for NICs in an operating system B. assignment of IP addresses for Composer appliances C. assignment of IP addresses for PXE booting to a deployment server D. assignment of IP addresses for interconnect modules E. assignment of IP addresses for iLOs
What is the main difference between HPE SimpliVity 2600 and HPE SimpliVity 380?
A. HPE SimpliVity 380 is shipped in a 5-node cluster configuration, while SimpliVity 2600 offers flexible expanding
B. HPE SimpliVity 380 integrates with Hyper-V only, while HPE SimpliVity 2600 supports any virtualization platform
C. HPE SimpliVity 380 is licensed per virtual machine, while HPE SimpliVity 2600 is licensed per capacity
D. HPE SimpliVity 380 uses hardware deduplication, while HPE SimpliVity 2600 uses software deduplication
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13:
HOTSPOT An integrator is creating a server profile template for a VMware Cluster in a Synergy environment. The network administrator has given the server team two 40Gb uplinks with all 200 VLANs presented. Click the appropriate network type that the integrator should select. Hot Area:
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QUESTION 1:
A partner received a Partner SOW from a distributor. Is this a way partners can alter the Partner SOW to prepare the Customer SOW? Solution: Partners can add their own logo.
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2:
Is this a correct use case for an HPE GreenLake for Compute option? Solution: General Compute for VDI
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3:
Does HPE offer this service under the monitoring level of HPE Adaptive Management Services? Solution: backup and restore services
Is this information you should gather and provide to HPE to qualify a customer for HPE GreenLake? Solution: How many months does it take from concept to production to provision infrastructure.
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5:
You have qualified a customer for the Swift sales program and entered the solution into the GLQQ tool Is this the next step in the sales process? Solution: Complete the change order process to offer a complete HPE GreenLake solution
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6:
Is this a way mat customers benefit from HPE GreenLake for Storage solutions? Solution: Customers get a faster return on investment using software-defined storage (SDS) based on HPE Apollo.
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7:
You proposed an HPE GreenLake solution to a customer and the customer is concerned about being locked into HPE. Is this an appropriate response to the customer\’s concern? Solution: Reassure the customer that HPE GreenLake solutions can include third-party products.
For a custom solution, Is this when the partner and distributor add a markup to the unit or consumption? Solution: Before Start and End BOMs are built.
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9:
Is this when to use the Solution Assessment Foundry (SAF)? Solution: Discovery for storage customers
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10:
Is this now you can add HPE GMS to an HPE GLQQ Tool solution? Solution: Manually add GMS into the output proposal.
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11:
Is this an HPE Financial Service that can help customers fund new investments, such as in HPE GreenLake? Solution: The Compute as a Service template is designed to support a single, specialized workload such as genomics.
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
You are designing a custom HPE GreenLaKe solution and have created solution BOMs. Is this the next step in the process? Solution: Sign an SOW with the customer tor you to deliver the solution
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13:
Is this about the SOW Order Form output from the GLQQ tool? Solution: It is developed with Distributor approval
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QUESTION 1:
A customer is a cloud service provider with an infrastructure powered by HPE 3PAR StoreServ 9000. The customer is concerned about their ability to ensure the quality of service and protect their tenants from unpredictable bursts of I/O from other tenants. What should you recommend to your customer?
A. Use Priority Optimization to enable service levels for workloads. B. Use Adaptive Optimization to optimize service levels autonomically. C. Use Dynamic Optimization to automatically manage the quality of service. D. Use Virtual Domains to automatically set multi-tenant policies.
You are planning a single-site Nimble solution with iSCSI connectivity. Two 10GbE SFP+ dual port NICS are included in the configuration. You designed an intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) stack with HPE FlexFabric 5900CP switches. Which statement is correct when discussing the IRF limits for this configuration?
A. When connecting an iSCSI storage to an IRF stack, a minimum of four 10GbE ports must be used per switch.
B. A maximum of two switches can be used in an IRF stack when connecting storage.
C. In an IRF stack with storage connectivity, the 40GbE ports cannot be used.
D. The used IRF ports for iSCSI traffic have to be configured as 10GbE converged ports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3:
An HPE 3PAR StoreServ customer with FC, SSD, and NL, drives is facing extreme latency during peak business hours with an OLTP application. They have enabled tiering using all drive types. What could be used to resolve the issue?
A. Dynamic Optimization using tier 2 B. Adaptive Optimization using tier 1 C. Dynamic Optimization between tier 0 and tier 1 D. Dynamic Optimization using tier 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4:
What performance benefit is provided by using the HPE StoreVirtual DSM for Microsoft MPIO instead of the standard MPIO?
A. The HPE DSM increases availability and reduces latency and throughput. B. The storage system, which holds a copy of the requested data, services the read I/Os. C. The iSCSI connections are blocked to non-critical nodes in the cluster by default. D. The storage system, which receives a copy of the data, does not service the write I/O.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5:
You are planning an upgrade to a customer\’s existing HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200 to include 4-port 16Gb FC adapters. The servers are zoned to see the storage via four paths. The customer is concerned about storage availability during the upgrade. Which statement is correct about performing this upgrade?
A. When NPIV is enabled, the 3PAR Port persistence will show all four paths to the servers. B. The MPIO service will do a failover, and the servers will continue to have access via two paths. C. Windows servers require host explorer is installed to ensure MPIO is unaffected. D. As long as the MEM driver is installed on VMware vSphere, no path failures are seen.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6:
A customer asks for an integrated solution for their remote office with All-Flesh storage and ease of management. Application-aware replication to their main office is an important requirement. Which HPE solution component should you discuss with the customer first?
A. HPE SimpliVity 380 B. HPE MSA 2052 Storage C. HPE Nimble CS1000 system D. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
A customer is evaluating an HPE 3PAR StoreServ system in a proof-of-concept project. The customer wants to receive emails about important storage system events and alerts. What feature do you need to configure?
A. HPE OneView integration B. Secure Service Agent C. Real-time Alert Processing D. Local Notification Service
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8:
What is used to migrate data between nodes in an HPE StoreVirtual VSA environment?
A. Network RAID B. Peer Motion C. SmartClone D. Remote Copy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9:
After a performance analysis, a customer plants to reorganize his Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC) configuration and wants to raise it from 256GB to 768 GB. Which action is needed to take advantage of the new AFC configuration?
A. Increase the current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space. B. Remove the old AO configuration and recreate a new one. C. Run tunesys after raising the AFC to take advantage of the additional space. D. Remove flash cache for all VVs and then run createflashcache.
Which management interface uses four basic commands (create, read, update, and delete) to enable administrators to define and radically simplify management processes?
A customer has upgraded the first of their two HPE StoreServ 8200S to the latest InForm OS version to take advantage of the compression feature. You have been asked to design the storage configuration to support Oracle Database volumes to utilize HPE 3PAR compression. Based on the analysis of the array, what would be your suggestion to implement the requested change?
A. Consider adding another node pair for compression to work efficiently. B. Install the Catalyst agent on the Oracle server to enable inline compression on the selected VV. C. Configure the source-side compression to offload compression to the host. D. Balance the workloads between the arrays to have enough headroom for compression.
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