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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-N
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions
Exam Code: 1Y0-253
Total Questions: 186 Q&As
1Y0-253 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to allow additional users to access resources using the NetScaler Gateway Plug-in after the administrator installs the universal license on the NetScaler Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Set ICA Proxy to OFF.
B. Configure Citrix Receiver Home Page.
C. Change the authentication AAA settings.
D. Set Single Sign-on with Windows to OFF.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which two parameters are required for adding a new node to a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster IP of the new cluster node
B. NetScaler IP of the new cluster node
C. NetScaler IP of the existing cluster node
D. Remote NetScaler user name and password
E. Backplane interface of the existing cluster node
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Scenario: Users report that they are being presented with a certificate error when they attempt to access the remote access website of the company. 1Y0-253 dumps No changes were made to the NetScaler certificates recently.
What should the Citrix Administrator check on the NetScaler to identify this issue?
A. Cert Links
B. OCSP Binding
C. Certificate Format
D. Certificate Expiry Date
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which monitor should a Citrix Administrator configure to monitor a StoreFront server group with SSL enabled?
A. TCP
B. SSL_TCP
C. STOREFRONT with “Secure” checked
D. CITRIX-WEB-INTERFACE with “Secure” checked
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What should be done to ensure high availability (HA) failover in a NetScaler HA configuration?
A. Disable all unused system interfaces.
B. Disable the IPv6 feature on the NetScaler.
C. Enable all used and unused system interfaces.
D. Change the NetScaler HA setup to two-arm mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A Citrix Administrator needs to track load balanced traffic from the NetScaler to separate, individual subnets.
Which IP address should be used to do this?
A. Virtual IP (VIP)
B. Mapped IP (MIP)
C. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
D. Subnet IP (SNIP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring user authentication on the NetScaler Gateway. The administrator wants to use the same login name that is used to log into Windows-based domain joined workstations.
Which Server Logon Name Attribute should be used?
A. memberOf
B. displayName
C. sAMAccountName
D. userAccountControl
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Two StoreFront servers in an environment need to be addressed with a single URL.
Which feature should a Citrix Administrator enable to meet this requirement?
A. SSL VPN
B. Load Balancing
C. Integrated Caching
D. Application Firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator complete to configure the SSL Offloading feature on a NetScaler appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Create a DNS virtual server.
B. Configure an AAA virtual server.
C. Create an SSL VPN virtual server.
D. Create a load balancing virtual server.
E. Import a valid certification-key pair and bind it to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator needs to mask the server name used by a web server, without exposing the web server virtual directory structure. 1Y0-253 dumps
Which policy should the administrator use to complete this task?
A. Responder
B. Content Filtering
C. Content Switching
D. URL Transformation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator is replacing an expired SSL certificate bound to a virtual server.
The established ICA connections to the virtual server will display as _______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. logged off
B. terminated
C. disconnected
D. uninterrupted
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
At the onset of a XenDesktop 7.5 with NetScaler Gateway 10.5 proof-of-concept, users report they are unable to access desktop and server OS machines.
Which configuration might be preventing users from accessing desktop and server OS machines?
A. Single-hop DMZ with StoreFront
B. Double-hop DMZ with StoreFront
C. Single-hop DMZ with Web Interface
D. Double-hop DMZ with Web Interface
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft SharePoint Applications
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
70-480 dumps
QUESTION 1
You develop an HTML application that is located at www.adventure-works.com. The application must load JSON data from www.fabrikam.com.
You need to choose an approach for loading the data.
What should you do?
A. Add a crossdomain.xml file to the second server.
B. Configure Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) on the servers.
C. Load the data in a JavaScript timeout callback.
D. Reference the remote data as an XML resource.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are creating a rotating image of a company logo.
The logo must spin on a horizontal axis and on a vertical axis.
You need to use the least amount of development effort to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create an Image Spinner object, load the image into the spinner, and set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
B. Create a Canvas Globe transform and set the image as the globe object. Set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
C. Create a single Canvas 3D transform and load the image into it. Set the rotation properties.
D. Create a Canvas 2D transform and set the image to rotate horizontally and vertically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are developing a web page that consumes a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service. The page includes the following code segment.  70-480 dumps
var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest() ;
The page uses the xhrHandler() method to listen for changes to the request status of the WCF service calls. It uses the xmlToJavaScript() method to convert the response from the WCF service to a JavaScript object.
The xhrHandler() method must be called automatically each time the request status changes.
You need to add the event handler to the request object.
Which line of code should you use?
A. xhr.onCallback = xhrHandler;
B. xhr.onreadystatechange = xhrHandler;
C. xhr.readyState = xhrHandler;
D. xhr.status = xhrHandler;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are developing a web application that uses web workers to process images extracted from an HTML5 CANVAS object on a web page.
You need to pass messages between the web workers and the web page.
Which three types of objects should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. JSON
B. Window
C. Parent
D. String
E. JavaScript
F. DOM
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 5
You are developing an HTML5 web application and are styling text.
You need to use the text-transform CSS property.
Which value is valid for the text-transform property?
A. Lowercase
B. Blink
C. Line-through
D. 20px
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are developing an HTML5 web application and are styling text.
You need to use the text-transform CSS property.
Which values are valid for the text-transform property?
A. hidden
B. blink
C. capitalize
D. line-through
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are developing an HTML5 page. The page includes the following code. 70-480 dumps
70-480 dumps
The inner paragraph must be exactly 15 pixels from the top left corner of the outer paragraph. You set the left style for the inner paragraph to the appropriate value.
You need to set the position property of the inner paragraph.
Which value should you use?
A. absolute
B. static
C. fixed
D. relative
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are developing an HTML5 web application for a surveyor company that displays topographic images.
The application must:
Display the topographic images at different zoom levels without loss of detail
Print the topographic images without loss of detail
Work from only one source file for each topographic image
You need to ensure that the topographic images display according to the requirements.
Which HTML5 element should you use?
A. SVG
B. CANVAS
C. SAMP
D. AREA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are developing a web page that will be divided into three vertical sections. The main content of the site will be placed in the center section. The two outer sections will contain advertisements.
You have the following requirements:
The main content section must be set to two times the width of the advertising sections.
The layout must be specified by using the CSS3 flexible box model.
You need to ensure that the visual layout of the page meets the requirements.
Which CSS3 property should you use?
A. box-orient
B. box-flex-group
C. box-flex
D. box-direction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background. 70-480 dumps
A page in the application instantiates the web worker process.
You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture events.
C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture events.
Correct Answer: B,C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an active directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DCS. DCS has a server core installation of windows server 2012. You need to uninstall Active Directory from DCS manually. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-WindowsFeature cmdlet
B. the dsamain.exe command
C. the ntdsutil.exe command
D. the Remove-ADComputer cmdlet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that hosts the primary DNS zone for contoso.com. All client computers are configured to use DC1 as the primary DNS server. You need to configure DC1 to resolve any DNS requests that are not for the contoso.com zone by querying the DNS server of your Internet Service Provider (ISP).
What should you configure?
A. Name server (NS) records
B. Condition& forwarders
C. Forwarders
D. Naming Authority Pointer (NAPTR) DNS resource records (RR)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a file server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
5erver2 contains a shared folder named Home. Home contains the home folder of each user. All users have the necessary permissions to access only their home folder. 70-410 dumps A user named User1 opens the Home share as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-410 dumps
You need to ensure that all users see only their own home folder when they access Home.
What should you do from Server2?
A. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of Home.
B. From Server Manager, modify the properties of the volume that contains Home.
C. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of the volume that contains Home.
D. From Server Manager, modify the properties of Home.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client computers.
The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by using TCP port 3080. You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1. The solution must ensure that the application can connect to Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?
A. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com domain, including domain controllers, have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com’s user accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU), named ABCStaff. 70-410 dumps
ABC.com’s managersbelong to a group, named ABCManagers. You have been instructed to create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that should be linked to the ABCStaffOU, but not affect ABC.com’s managers.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider removing the user accounts of the managers from the ABCStaff OU.
B. You should consider configuring the new GPO’s WMI filter.
C. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the Admins group.
D. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the localAdministrators group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-410 pdf
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You run a Windows 2012 R2 Hyper-V Role Server, you need to shrink the size of files.vhd( 200GB ). Using the Edit Virtual Disk Wizard what option should you choose.
A. Compact
B. Shrink
C. Resize
D. Convert
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latest version of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the user accounts and the computer accounts for laptops and desktop computers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. 70-410 dumps You need to ensure that the configuration settings in GP1 are applied only to the laptops in OU1. The solution must ensure that GP1 is applied automatically to new laptops that are added to OU1. What should you do?
A. Modify the GPO Status of GP1.
B. Configure the WMI Filter of GP1.
C. Modify the security settings of GP1.
D. Modify the security settings of OU1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is a member of a workgroup. You need to configure a local Group Policy on Server1 that will apply only to nonadministrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. Group Policy Management Editor
C. Group Policy Management
D. Group Policy Object Editor
Correct Answer: D

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[High Quality Microsoft Questions] New 70-767 Dumps Youtube Latest Microsoft 70-767 Dumps PDF Materials

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You enable and configure Routing and Remote Access (RRAS) on Server1.
You create a user account named User1.
You need to ensure that User1 can establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the members of the Remote Management Users group.
B. Add a RADIUS client.
C. Modify the Dial-in setting of User1.
D. Create a connection request policy.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Windows Server Update Services server role installed.
Server1 stores update files locally in C:\Updates.You need to change the location in which the update files are stored to D:\Updates.
What should you do?
A. From the Update Services console, run the Windows Server Update Services Configuration Wizard.
B. From a command prompt, run wsusutil.exe and specify the movecontent parameter.
C. From the Update Services console, configure the Update Files and Languages option.
D. From a command prompt, run wsusutil.exe and specify the export parameter.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains 10 domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-767 pdf
You plan to create a new Active Directory-integrated zone named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the new zone will be replicated to only four of the domain controllers.
What should you do first?
A. Create an application directory partition.
B. Create an Active Directory connection object.
C. Create an Active Directory site link.
D. Change the zone replication scope.
Correct Answer: A
70-767 dumps
QUESTION 4
Your company deploys a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains a domain controller named DC10. 70-767 dumps
On DC10, the disk that contains the SYSVOL folder fails.
You replace the failed disk. You stop the Distributed File System (DFS) Replication service. You restore the SYSVOL folder.
You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10.
Which tool should you use before you start the DFS Replication service on DC10?
A. Dfsgui.msc
B. Dfsmgmt.msc
C. Adsiedit.msc
D. Ldp
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes. Both nodes run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Cluster1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You configure a custom service on VM1 named Service1.
You need to ensure that VM1 will be moved to a different node if Service1 fails.
Which cmdlet should you run on Cluster1?
A. Add-ClusterVmMonitoredItem
B. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
C. Set-ClusterResourceDependency
D. Enable VmResourceMetering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server1 to create an entry in an event log when the processor usage exceeds 60 percent.
Which type of data collector should you create?
A. An event trace data collector
B. A performance counter alert
C. A performance counter data collector
D. A configuration data collector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 P.2. 70-767 pdf
Server1 has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed.
Your company’s security policy requires that certificate-based authentication must be used by some network services.
You need to identify which Network Policy Server (NPS) authentication methods comply with the security policy.
Which two authentication methods should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. MS-CHAP
B. PEAP-MS-CHAP v2
C. Chap
D. EAP-TLS
E. MS-CHAP v2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
You have a DNS server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server hosts the zone for contoso.com and is accessible from the Internet.
You need to create a DNS record for the Sender Policy Framework (SPF) to list the hosts that are authorized to send email for contoso.com.
Which type of record should you create?
A. mail exchanger (MX)
B. resource record signature (RRSIG)
C. text (TXT)
D. name server (NS)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
You plan to test Windows Server 2012 R2 by using native-boot virtual hard disks (VHDs).
You have a Windows image file named file1.wim.
You need to add an image of a volume to file1.wim.
What should you do?
A. Run imagex.exe and specify the /append parameter.
B. Run imagex.exe and specify the /export parameter.
C. Run dism.exe and specify the /image parameter.
D. Run dism.exe and specify the /append-image parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-767 dumps
The domain contains 400 desktop computers that run Windows 8 and 10 desktop computers that run Windows XP Service Pack 3 (SP3). All new desktop computers that are added to the domain run Windows 8.
All of the desktop computers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains startup script settings. You link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to ensure that GPO1 is applied only to computers that run Windows XP SP3.
What should you do?
A. Create and link a WML filter to GPO1
B. Run the Set-GPInheritance cmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
C. Run the Set-GPLink cmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
D. Modify the Security settings of OU1.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. 200-125 pdf What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. 200-125 dumps What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
A. More collision domains will be created.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
Answer: D
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: ACF

QUESTION 7
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why? 200-125 pdf
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: BDE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: AD

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[High Quality Cisco Questions] Latest Cisco 700-070 Dumps Questions And Answers | Youtube Free Demo

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The best Cisco 700-070 actual VCE exam dumps practice questions and answers in PDF, and practice exam pdf formats. Download Cisco 700-070 vce files and training materials online. https://www.leads4pass.com/700-070.html Cisco TelePresence Solutions Specialist 700-070 training resources which are the best for clearing 700-070 test, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Cisco Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Correct Answer: C
700-070
QUESTION 3           700-070
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT executives? (Choose two)
A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture. In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers whilethe collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
B. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer.
D. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
D. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which two options are characteristics of Cisco collaboration cloud-based solutions? (Choose two.) 700-070
A. private cloud collaboration solution
B. data center interconnected solution
C. hosted collaboration solution partner cloud
D. security intelligence operations
E. integrated computed stacks
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a reason why it is important to identify and collect business KPIs when designing the Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. to be able to identify the weakest building blocks of the business model and propose Cisco Collaboration Architecture for that building block
B. to be able to translate features and functionalities of Cisco Collaboration Architecture into benefits for measured KPIs
C. to be able to understand the customer’s processes, partners, business model, strategy, and vision
D. to be able to propose how the business model can be improved by using Cisco Collaboration Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
How can the Cisco collaboration services layer of Cisco Collaboration Architecture help managers to measure KPIs?
A. The Cisco collaboration services layer is a standalone element of Cisco Collaboration Architecture and delivers services that directly improve business KPIs
B. Cisco collaboration services and infrastructure layers compose Cisco Collaboration Architecture that improves technical KPIs.
C. The Cisco collaboration services layer delivers additional performance information to demonstrate increased business performance.
D. Conferencing, IP communications, telepresence, and other Cisco collaboration services deliver additional information to show the increased business performance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs? 700-070
A. mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
B. mapping collaboration maps with the customer’s existing solutions
C. mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
D. mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Cisco Questions] 2017 Latest Cisco 210-250 Dumps Practice Questions Free Try

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Cisco 210-250 dumps exam CCNA Cyber Ops is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 exam training materials.

Question No : 1
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Answer: A,D

Question No : 2
Which term represents the practice of giving employees only those permissions necessary to perform their specific role within an organization?
A. integrity validation
B. due diligence
C. need to know
D. least privilege
Answer: D

Question No : 3
Which concern is important when monitoring NTP servers for abnormal levels of traffic?
A. Being the cause of a distributed reflection denial of service attack.
B. Users changing the time settings on their systems.
C. A critical server may not have the correct time synchronized.
D. Watching for rogue devices that have been added to the network.
Answer: C
210-250
Question No : 4                         210-250
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which situation indicates application-level white listing?
A. Allow everything and deny specific executable files.
B. Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files.
C. Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily.
D. Allow specific files and deny everything else.
Answer: C

Question No : 6
For which reason can HTTPS traffic make security monitoring difficult?
A. encryption
B. large packet headers
C. Signature detection takes longer.
D. SSL interception
Answer: D

Question No : 7
According to RFC 1035 which transport protocol is recommended for use with DNS queries?
A. Transmission Control Protocol
B. Reliable Data Protocol
C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
D. User Datagram Protocol
Answer: B

Question No : 8
One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems. What does CIA mean in this context?
A. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability
B. Confidentiality, Identity, and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Authorization
D. Confidentiality, Identity, and Authorization
Answer: A

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High Pass Rate – Latest Lpi 101-400 Exam Questions And Youtube Free Demo

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Lpi LPIC-1 101-400 training resources which are the best for clearing 101-400 test, Lpi LPIC-1 is the industry leader in information technology, high quality Lpi LPIC-1 101-400 exam training materials. The best and most updated LPIC-1 101-400 training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Correct Answer: C
101-400 exam
QUESTION 4
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5     101-400 exam
Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r “rebooting”
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION           101-400 exam
Which file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Specify the file name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: cmdline, /proc/cmdline

QUESTION 10
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
Correct Answer: ABD

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642-887 Exam – Latest Cisco 642-887 Dumps Questions And Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type.   https://www.leads4pass.com/642-887.html dumps Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?  642-887 dumps
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B
642-887
QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress,classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.  642-887 dumps
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

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How To Pass 70-411 Exam With Latest Microsoft 70-411 Exam Questions

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Question No : 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.  Latest Microsoft https://www.leads4pass.com/70-411.html exam Questions And Answers
All client computers run Windows 8 Enterprise.
DC1 contains a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
You need to deploy a VPN connection to all users.
What should you configure from User Configuration in GPO1?
A. Policies/Administrative Templates/Network/Windows Connect Now
B. Policies/Administrative Templates/Network/Network Connections
C. Policies/Administrative Templates/Windows Components/Windows Mobility Center
D. Preferences/Control Panel Settings/Network Options
Answer: D

Explanation:
1. Open the Group Policy Management Console. Right-click the Group Policy object (GPO) that should contain the new preference item, and then click Edit.
2. In the console tree under Computer Configuration or User Configuration, expand the Preferences folder, and then expand the Control Panel Settings folder.
3. Right-click the Network Options node, point to New, and select VPN Connection. The Network Options extension allows you to centrally create, modify, and delete dial-up networking and 70-411 pdf virtual private network (VPN) connections. Before you create a network option preference item, you should review the behavior of each type of action possible with the extension.
70-411
Question No : 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.1.
The network contains a shared folder named FinancialData that contains five files.
You need to ensure that the FinancialData folder and its contents are copied to all of the client computers.
Which two Group Policy preferences should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Shortcuts
B. Network Shares
C. Environment
D. Folders
E. Files
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
Folder preference items allow you to create, update, replace, and delete folders and their contents. (To configure individual files rather than folders, see Files Extension.) Before you create a Folder preference item, you should review the 70-411 vce behavior of each type of action possible with this extension.
File preference items allow you to copy, modify the attributes of, replace, and delete files. (To configure folders rather than individual files, see Folders Extension.) Before you create a File preference item, you should review the behavior of each type of action possible with this extension.

Question No : 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8.1 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2013.
You implement a Group Policy central store.
You need to modify the default Microsoft Office 2013 Save As location for all client computers. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you configure in a Group Policy object (GPO)?
A. The Group Policy preferences
B. An application control policy
C. The Administrative Templates
D. The Software Installation settings
Answer: A

Explanation:
Group Policy preferences provide the means to simplify deployment and standardize configurations. They add to Group Policy a centralized system for deploying 70-411 dumps preferences (that is, settings that users can change later). You can also use Group Policy preferences to configure applications that are not Group Policy-aware. By using Group Policy preferences, you can change or delete almost any registry setting, file or folder, shortcut, and more. You are not limited by the contents of Administrative Template files.

Question No : 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 that contains hundreds of settings.
GPO1 is linked to an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. OU1 contains 200 client computers.
You plan to unlink GPO1 from OU1.
You need to identify which GPO settings will be removed from the computers after GPO1 is unlinked from OU1.
Which two GPO settings should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. The managed Administrative Template settings
B. The unmanaged Administrative Template settings
C. The System Services security settings
D. The Event Log security settings
E. The Restricted Groups security settings
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
There are two kinds of Administrative Template policy settings: Managed and Unmanaged.
The Group Policy service governs Managed policy settings and removes a policy setting when it is no longer within scope of the user or computer.

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