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300-209 dumps

Latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?
A. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnelpolicy tunnelspecified split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnelpolicy tunnelall split tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C. group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified split tunnelnetwork-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnelnetwork-list splitlist
E. crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What is the default storage location of user-level bookmarks in an IOS clientless SSL VPN?
A. disk0:/webvpn/{context name}/
B. disk1:/webvpn/{context name}/
C. flash:/webvpn/{context name}/
D. nvram:/webvpn/{context name}/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three configurations are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose three.)
A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B. Only crypto map configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but need to be the same type of device.
E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and should be the same type of device.
F. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
G. The IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
Correct Answer: CEG

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A new NOC engineer, while viewing a real-time log from an SSL VPN tunnel, has a question a line in the log.
The IP address 172.26.26.30 is attached to which interface in the network? 300-209 dumps
A. the Cisco ASA physical interface
B. the physical interface of the end user
C. the Cisco ASA SSL VPN tunnel interface
D. the SSL VPN tunnel interface of the end user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two qualify as Next Generation Encryption integrity algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-512
B. SHA-256
C. SHA-192
D. SHA-380
E. SHA-192
F. SHA-196
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which command specifies the path to the Host Scan package in an ASA AnyConnect VPN?
A. csd hostscan path image
B. csd hostscan image path
C. csd hostscan path
D. hostscan image path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which transform set is contained in the IKEv2 default proposal?
A. aes-cbc-192, sha256, group 14
B. 3des, md5, group 7
C. 3des, sha1, group 1
D. aes-cbc-128, sha, group 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An XYZ Corporation systems engineer, while making a sales call on the ABC Corporation headquarters, tried to access the XYZ sales demonstration folder to transfer a demonstration via FTP from an ABC conference room behind the firewall. The engineer could not reach XYZ through the remote-access VPN tunnel. From home the previous day, however, the engineer did connect to the XYZ sales demonstration folder and transferred the demonstration via IPsec over DSL.
To get the connection to work and transfer the demonstration, what should the engineer do?
A. Change the MTU size on the IPsec client to account for the change from DSL to cable transmission.
B. Enable the local LAN access option on the IPsec client.
C. Enable the IPsec over TCP option on the IPsec client.
D. Enable the clientless SSL VPN option on the PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
300-209 dumps
300-209 dumps
300-209 dumps
When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 14
E. 19
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while SSL works fine? 300-209 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec.
B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface.
C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy.
D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port.
E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
When you troubleshoot Cisco AnyConnect, which step does Cisco recommend before you open a TAC case?
A. Show applet Lifecycle exceptions.
B. Disable cookies.
C. Enable the WebVPN cache.
D. Collect a DART bundle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A junior network engineer configured the corporate Cisco ASA appliance to accommodate a new temporary worker. For security reasons, the IT department wants to restrict the internal network access of the new temporary worker to the corporate server, with an IP address of 10.0.4.10. After the junior network engineer finished the configuration, an IT security specialist tested the account of the temporary worker. The tester was able to access the URLs of additional secure servers from the WebVPN user account of the temporary worker.
What did the junior network engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The ACL was configured incorrectly.
B. The ACL was applied incorrectly or was not applied.
C. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker group policy.
D. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker user policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which DAP endpoint attribute checks for the matching MAC address of a client machine?
A. device
B. process
C. antispyware
D. BIA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
In the Cisco ASDM interface, where do you enable the DTLS protocol setting?
A. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; Group Policies andgt; Add or Edit andgt; Add or Edit Internal Group Policy
B. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; AAA Setup andgt; Local Users andgt; Add or Edit
C. Device Management andgt; Users/AAA andgt; User Accounts andgt; Add or Edit andgt; Add or Edit User Account andgt; VPN Policy andgt; SSL VPN Client
D. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; Group Policies andgt; Add or Edit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which command enables IOS SSL VPN Smart Tunnel support for PuTTY?
A. appl ssh putty.exe win
B. appl ssh putty.exe windows
C. appl ssh putty
D. appl ssh putty.exe
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
While troubleshooting a remote-access application, a new NOC engineer received the logging message that is shown in the exhibit. Which configuration is most likely to be mismatched?
A. IKE configuration
B. extended authentication configuration
C. IPsec configuration
D. digital certificate configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You have deployed new Cisco AnyConnect start before logon modules and set the configuration to download modules before logon, but all client connections continue to use the previous version of the module.
Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure start before logon in the client profile.
B. Configure a group policy to prompt the user to download the updated module.
C. Define the modules for download in the client profile.
D. Define the modules for download in the group policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
Which type of mismatch is causing the problem with the IPsec VPN tunnel?
A. PSK
B. Phase 1 policy
C. transform set
D. crypto access list
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two are features of GETVPN but not DMVPN and FlexVPN? (Choose two.)
A. one IPsec SA for all encrypted traffic
B. no requirement for an overlay routing protocol
C. design for use over public or private WAN
D. sequence numbers that enable scalable replay checking
E. enabled use of ESP or AH
F. preservation of IP protocol in outer header
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
A spoke has two Internet connections for failover. How can you achieve optimum failover without affecting any other router in the DMVPN cloud? 300-209 dumps
A. Create another DMVPN cloud by configuring another tunnel interface that is sourced from the second ISP link.
B. Use another router at the spoke site, because two ISP connections on the same router for the same hub is not allowed.
C. Configure SLA tracking, and when the primary interface goes down, manually change the tunnel source of the tunnel interface.
D. Create another tunnel interface with same configuration except the tunnel source, and configure the if-state nhrp and backup interface commands on the primary tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A NOC engineer is in the process of entering information into the Create New VPN Connection Entry fields.
Which statement correctly describes how to do this?
A. In the Connection Entry field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. In the Host field, enter the IP address of the remote client device.
C. In the Authentication tab, click the Group Authentication or Mutual Group Authentication radio button to enable symmetrical pre-shared key authentication.
D. In the Name field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
Which two characteristics of the VPN implementation are evident? (Choose two.)
A. dual DMVPN cloud setup with dual hub
B. DMVPN Phase 3 implementation
C. single DMVPN cloud setup with dual hub
D. DMVPN Phase 1 implementation
E. quad DMVPN cloud with quadra hub
F. DMVPN Phase 2 implementation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 26
Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.)
A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.
B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.
C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive.
D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.
E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 27
An administrator desires that when work laptops are not connected to the corporate network, they should automatically initiate an AnyConnect VPN tunnel back to headquarters. Where does the administrator configure this?
A. Via the svc trusted-network command under the group-policy sub-configuration mode on the ASA
B. Under the andquot;Automatic VPN Policyandquot; section inside the Anyconnect Profile Editor within ASDM
C. Under the TNDPolicy XML section within the Local Preferences file on the client computer
D. Via the svc trusted-network command under the global webvpn sub-configuration mode on the ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 30
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN? 300-209 dumps
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A

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648-244 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements would lead you to use a mixed Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with physical and virtual machines instead of a fully virtualized deployment? (Choose two.)
A. when migrating from a physical to a virtual deployment
B. when inter virtual machine traffic should be switched with Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. when using MOH audio live-stream devices
D. when you want to use direct-attached Fibre Channel SAN devices
E. when you need remote access to the BIOS setup
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Why should you use the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in addition to your design solution that you did manually?
A. this is not necessary if the DocWiki guidelines for virtualized Cisco Unified Communications are followed
B. to distribute and place the virtual machines automatically in the optimized way
C. to calculate CPU and memory utilization
D. to select the optimized OVA template for the deployment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When designing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how many MOH Unicast streams are supported per server when streaming is colocated?
A. 48
B. 128
C. 250
D. 256
E. 500
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
When designing a virtualized Cisco Unity Connection deployment, which two statements are true? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. configure CPU affinity for Cisco Unity Connection
B. reserve an unused core per Cisco Unity Connection virtual machine
C. reserve an unused core per host server
D. iLBC codec selection reduces the number of ports by 75 percent
E. a Cisco Unity Connection cluster supports up to 40,000 users
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 5
How many coresident applications can be hosted on a Cisco UCS C200 M2 server when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two vDisk options can be selected for the 20,000-user Cisco Unity Connection OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 2 * 146 GB
B. 2 * 200 GB
C. 2 * 256 GB
D. 2 * 300 GB
E. 2 * 450 GB
F. 2 * 500 GB
Correct Answer: D,F

QUESTION 7
How many Cisco Unified Communications Manager users can be processed by a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server compared to a Cisco MCS 7845-I3 server?
A. single
B. double
C. triple
D. quadruple
E. quintuple
F. sextuple
G. octuple
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which application can be colocated on the same server as the virtualized Cisco Unified Communications applications?
A. DHCP server
B. DNS server
C. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
D. VMware vCenter
E. Cisco SocialMiner
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
How many DIMM slots does the Intel Xeon 5600 processor architecture offer per socket?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
E. 18
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How many Cisco Media Communications Servers does a deployment require to reach a return on investment when deploying Cisco B-Series servers instead of Cisco Media Communications Servers in a newly installed data center?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two make up the default username and password to access the Cisco Integrated Management Controller for the first time? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. admin
B. administrator
C. root
D. password
E. none (empty)
F. Cisco123
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 12
What is the disk efficiency factor when using RAID 10?
A. 1/2
B. 1/n
C. 1/(n/2)
D. 1-1/n
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a general server status indicator?
A. Good
B. Fault
C. Severed Fault
D. Test in Progress
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
Correct Answer: B,D

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause? 300-115 dumps
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface DescriptionD. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
What happens if you apply this command andquot;vlan dot1q tag nativeandquot;?
A. packet will be dropped
B. packet go to defautl vlan
C. packet go to native vlan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distributionand core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. 300-115 dumps The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on
backup device has also failed. Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Afterport security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisablerecovery cause security-violation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which three functions does Dynamic ARP Inspection perform with invalid IP-to MAC address bindings? 300-115 dumps (Choose there.)
A. accepts
B. deletes
C. discards
D. bypasses
E. intercepts
F. logs
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 19
300-115 dumps
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? 200-310 dumps (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. 200-310 dumps To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-101
Total Questions: 828 Q&As
400-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the max-age time in IS-IS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The IS-IS max-age time is 20 minutes by default.
B. The IS-IS max-age time is 60 minutes by default.
C. The IS-IS max-age time increments from zero to max-age.
D. The IS-IS max-age time decrements from max-age to zero.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID.
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? 400-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast packets on a source tree.
B. It requires an RP.
C. It forwards multicast packets on a shared distribution tree.
D. It floods multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
E. It floods multicast packets throughout the network.
F. It forwards multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which BGP feature allows R1 to instruct R2 which prefixes it is allowed to advertise to R1?
A. route refresh
B. Prefix-Based Outbound Route Filtering
C. distribute lists
D. prefix lists
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three capabilities are provided by MLD snooping? (Choose three.)
A. dynamic port learning
B. IPv6 multicast router discovery
C. user-configured ports age out automatically
D. a 5-minute aging timer
E. flooding control packets to the egress VLAN
F. a 60-second aging timer
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture?
A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. It can store only packet data.
C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress.
D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IGPs are true? 400-101 dumps (Choose Two)
A. RIPv2 and IS-IS calculate the metric of a link based on the bandwidth of a link.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols.
C. OSPF and EIGRP have high resource usage.D. RiPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM.
E. RIPv2 and OSPF are distance vector protocols.
F. IS-IS and EIGRP are link-state protocols.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?
A. stub
B. named mode
C. classic mode
D. passive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the BGP community attribute are true? (Choose two.)
A. Routers send the community attribute to all BGP neighbors automatically.
B. A router can change a received community attribute before advertising it to peers.
C. It is a well-known, discretionary BGP attribute.
D. It is an optional transitive BGP attribute.
E. A prefix can support only one community attribute.
Correct Answer: BD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
leads4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 8
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Some routers have been configured with default routes. 100-105 dumps What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. 100-105 dumps What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: EXIN
Certifications: EXIN ITIL
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)
Exam Code: EX0-001
Total Questions: 425 Q&As
EX0-001 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?
A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement
B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management? EX0-001 dumps
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design
B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service components
C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following activities are carried out during the “Where do we want to be?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?
A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks
B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
D. Training of all staff and investment of capital
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Service design emphasizes the importance of the “Four Ps”. These “Four Ps” include Partners, People, Processes and one other “P”. EX0-001 dumps Which of the following is the additional “P”?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Products
D. Potential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?
A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of market spaces
D. The design of the technology architectures
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A service level agreement (SLA)
B. A request for change (RFC)
C. The service portfolio
D. A service description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customer’s successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction? EX0-001 dumps
A. Capacity management
B. Governance
C. Service design
D. Service level management
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. extends the network to remote users
B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It supports NIC teaming.
B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
A. security
B. static versus dynamic routing
C. bandwidth
D. QoS
E. latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. 200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? 200-105 dumps (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, 200-105 dumps customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Exam Code: 70-412
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.- com.
Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust.
Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated.
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. 70-412 dumps The NLB cluster contains an application named App1 that is accessed by using the URL http://app1.contoso.com.
You plan to perform maintenance on Server1.
You need to ensure that all new connections to App1 are directed to Server2. The solution must not disconnect the existing connections to Server1.
What should you run?
A. The Set-NlbCluster cmdlet
B. The Set-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
C. The Stop-NlbCluster cmdlet
D. The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role in- stalled. All servers run Windows Server 2012.d
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the so- lution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and childl.contoso.com. The domains contain three domain con- trollers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that the KDC support for claims, compound authentication, and kerberos ar- moring setting is enforced in the child1.contoso.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
B. Upgrade DC11 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Raise the domain functional level of childl.contoso.com.
D. Raise the domain functional level of contoso.com.
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed.
You attempt to deploy AD RMS.
During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found.
You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Authorization Manager
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
E: Active Directory Rights Management Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. 70-412 dumps
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
You configure a user named User1 as a delegated administrator of DC10.
You need to ensure that User1 can log on to DC10 if the network link between the Main site and the Branch site fails.
What should you do?
A. Add User1 to the Domain Admins group.
B. On DC10, modify the User Rights Assignment in Local Policies.
C. Run repadmin and specify the /prp parameter.
D. On DC10, run ntdsutil and configure the settings in the Roles context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a cluster disk resource.
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 runs as a service. App1 stores date on the cluster disk resource.
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
B. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
C. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole
D. Add-ClusterServerRole
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link. 70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day.
What should you do?
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK.
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.- com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains named east.contoso.com and west.contoso.com.
You install an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster in each child domain.
You discover that all of the users in the contoso.com forest are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the users in west.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com and that the users in east.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the west.contoso.com do- main.
C. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the east.contoso.com do- main.
D. Modify the properties of the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B

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